With events such as the Non-Importation Act, continuing impressment, and just the ever existing threat of war with Britain, wouldn't that be the logical step to take?
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Before 1991 and the fall of the Soviets, obviously.
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What were some attitudes of the Germans from '45 to the mid '50s or so? Did people still support them? Was there as much anger at the Allies as at the end of WWI?
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I'm reading that in Anglo-saxon England women could hold property, inherit, establish their own wills, and that landgrants were often to both the husband and wife. It says that after the conquest, women no longer had any of these rights.
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I apologise if this breaks the 20 year rule but I figure you guys are the best to answer it.
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Hi,
There is an idea floating around today that is called 'Basic Income'; its sort of this idea that everyone should have a living amount of money, thus freeing the individual from work.
I know it's a sensitive issue, with a pile of ideology, but I'm primarily interested in the non-idealogical aspect of this concept. I've never run across the "Basic Income" idea as an implemented part of society in my readings of history before. But I am not a historian! :-)
Therefore, the question:
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no hope of an AMA in case you were wondering, he died in 2005 I'm afraid
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There is oil in the eastern parts of Russia and also plenty of minerals. Japan needed both of them, as they were being embargoed by the Americans and the British. Surely it would have made more sense for them to try to try to get resources from there and fight vs the Soviets, who were already engaged and loosing in the west rather than go against the US, right?
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This seems more like a politcal question, but I'm looking more for the historical aspect. I understand sort of how they came about but what happened to give them a negative stigma?
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This video was posted on another subreddit today and in the first half of the lecture the speaker argues something to the effect that Judeo-Christian values allowed capitalism to develop. Further, he says that the idea of a welfare state or government wealth redistribution did not exist in Greek or Roman society, and instead comes from Judaism.
How accepted are theories like this among academic historians? Are they even accurate?
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Or just smaller forts?
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I've always been fascinated by the hundreds (thousands) of medieval castles all over Europe (as mentioned in another post). But puzzled why anyone would spend so much money to build these huge, expensive, fortified castles in a sprint of activity and then seemingly stop building them in the 14th and 15th centuries, and abandoning them shortly thereafter. Why were castles no longer useful past the early renaissance?
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I'm not a christian (any more), but I took it for granted that the story of the Israelites being enslaved in Egypt and being led out by Moses really happened. But I was browsing wikipedia one day and happened across this page http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Exodus that says
"A century of research by archaeologists and Egyptologists has found no evidence which can be directly related to the Exodus captivity and the escape and travels through the wilderness, and most archaeologists have abandoned the archaeological investigation of Moses and the Exodus as "a fruitless pursuit"
Its kinda blowing my mind, and just wanted to see what you guys thought.
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I'm sorry if this is well known, but I don't know much about elections during that period. Thanks!
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