I'm not sure if the city had been evacuated or what went on there.
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Maybe I just read maps wrong. Sorry if I did but for instance, when looking at maps of the old Mali empire or maps of the old Mongol empire there were obvious spaces not owned by people. Did nations exist here or was it just small tribes.
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Further, when did we start to realize the importance of wiping?
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I've loved some of the topics here about how the Greeks and Romans practiced their beliefs, but one thing I'm curious about is how the treated the gods of other pantheons. I've always understood that the Romans were very cosmopolitan in their religion, and that even if they didn't worship these other gods, they still accepted their existence. Was this just for PR purposes or did they really actually believe that other gods existed outside of their borders?
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http://cassiopaea.org/forum/index.php?topic=13148.0
http://www.unexplained-mysteries.com/forum/index.php?showtopic=248168
are there any historians that know anything about this? its credibility? second one that is, first one just adds on it. Im getting into the history of everyone but thought id start with myself. I was also wondering if anyone knew the origin of the name Egerszegi. (my last name) itd be cool if someone knew anything or had an opinion.
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I apologize if this question doesn't belong in this sub and for the wasting of time of whichever moderator needs to delete it.
Is there a difference in quality or rigor from one company to another? Or are they generally all the same? I've been sampling high school history textbooks and it's stunning how similar they are to one another.
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I'm assuming that thousands of stars that were visible during ancient times have supernova'd, or have some sort of other unfortunate fate befall them, and are not visible today. Did ancient astronomers document celestial bodies that cannot be found today?
*edit for grammar
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I ask this question simply because I always hear a particular reason for lack of exploration of space, "public will lose interest". Was this a problem Europeans faced? Why or why not.
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I'm reading "City of God" over the next year. Other folks are too, via a Facebook group.
What authors or books should I have at hand to help me make sense of it, and to put it in context?
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New to reddit - accidentally posted this in askreddit first so heres a repost. I've obviously learned about about the extent of oppression in the post-Civil War era towards blacks, but what was life like for Asians, Hispanics, etc? Were they subject to the same laws as blacks? I understand that their populations were tiny/negligible in many southern states, but surely there were laws/rules that applied to them.
For example, would Mexican children in the South attend a separate school? Were they grouped in the same category as blacks?
TLDR - were all minorities treated the same way during segregation era America? How were their experiences different? To what extent did different minorities take part in the civil rights movement?
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arts_and_Crafts_movement
My friends and I had a discussion about this topic earlier and I'm curious about flaws in my thinking. The conversation originally started as an attempt to be snarky on my part- I was trying to say that the 'indie movement' has been done before.
Now I'm genuinely curious, and I'd love to hear a professional opinion. I'm not a trained historian of any kind, so I'm unsure of how to evaluate or support an idea like this. The similarities I have in mind are things like the indie wave sweeping pop-culture, its rejection of industrialism, art that has a 'natural' appearance, popularity of hand-crafted products (websites like Etsy.com), etc.
I tried this question on /r/art and awhile ago and got nothing, and figured I'd give this sub a try since my interest has been renewed.
Thanks in advance, you guys are always great :)
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I searched the internet, but i couldn't find anything.
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What is the origin of traditionally German typefaces (for example, Fraktur? Why did these typefaces persist to such a degree in the German states long after they had declined in popularity elsewhere?
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Why did Canadian commanders and troops not make nearly as much a contribution to Operation Torch (which landed in Morocco and Algeria) plus to the subsequent Tunisian Campaign as they did to the Sicilian and Italian Campaigns, the Normandy landings, and so on?
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