I tried to write a brief question but given the obscurity of the topic I felt they didn't make sense without just a bit of context to understand. (Hopefully I have my facts straight enough to not get in the way.) Scroll towards bottom for questions themselves.
Some context to pique interest:
Magnus Herscfeld was a gay jewish sex researcher who worked out of Berlin until fleeing to France where he died in 1942.
In Berlin he oversaw Institute of Sex Research. There, people who would be know as trans* today received gender affirming social and medical care, including the first modern gender reassignment surgery.
Hirschfeld was deeply curious about the sexual and inner lives of all sorts of people. He traveled widely and saw no reason to restrict his inquiry to wealthy people, nor did he have the kind of attitude problem you;d expect of an educated person of that time. In fact he had relationships with some major trade unions in order that working class people could find their way to him. This breadth of human experience led to what would be his last book Racism, published posthumously. In it, he utilized his extensive knowledge of sex (and therefor, reproduction, familial relationships, genetics etc) to inform a scientific argument against "race" having a biological basis, but instead being an invention of humans minds, and one we'd be better off without. This of course in a time when overt eugenics was not yet a discredited scientific concept.
Over 100 years ago Hirschfeld had a nuanced understanding of sex, gender, presentation, and relationship dynamics. He concluded based on his research that the wide variety of desires and behaviours in humans were natural and mostly healthy, contributions to the richness of humanity rather than deviations which should be eradicated. He fought to change laws criminalizing LGBTQ behaviour. And he was absolutely convinced that you can always tell a lesbian because among women, only lesbians can whistle.
questions
So, while no one is right 100% of the time, he does seem to have made important contributions. Yet in my (non academic) readings on the subject of sex/gender history he often goes un noted, or there is a short bit of information. It seems that his writings were only translated into English after many decades, many never at all. (Not to be an anglo chauvinist or anything, but it's unusual.) What have been translated are prohibitively expensive, if you can locate copies.
Through the gay grapevine I have heard a rumour that amounts to "Hirschfeld was a protege of Freud but then he did something Freud didn't like so he blackballed Hirschfeld, which prevented translations among other things, and it was so effective it basically continues to this day.
It seems he had some sort of relationship with Harry Benjamin, whose name is everywhere in the history of transsexual/transgender care since WW2, having stumbled somewhat by accident (as I understand it) into being the foremost expert for decades. I have seen it described as "they met once or twice" or as "Hirschfeld mentored Benjamin." What is the reality? From my reading, Benjamin was significantly less insightful and more conservative than Hirschfeld and if you imagine what couldvebeen.... a lot of pain and suffering might have been avoided if we had Hirschfeld Standards of Care.
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So my friend is currently playing Assassins Creed Valhalla and is using a male character. In game you can have sexual relations with both female and male NPC's. This got me wondering, did the Vikings care about hetero and non hetero relationships or were they more rigid like their Christian counterparts across Europe?
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Perhaps during a past caliphate that ruled over both Morocco and Spain?
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I'm aware that the Stamp Act pissed off lawyers, newspaper publishers, etc....and that the Townshend Acts and Tea act angered merchants, but what lead the average colonist to take up arms against Great Britain?
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Was there some sort of proto-Blues, or was it all spirituals/gospel songs...what would people have recognized as "Black Music" during this turbulent decade?
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I’m interested in reading them, but the versions I’ve found in my (albeit limited) searching online are either incomplete, poorly translated, or in Latin (which I unfortunately don’t speak). I was wondering if anyone had a version they could vouch for in terms of quality. Thanks in advance.
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EDIT: sorry I’m dumb. “TOOK PLACE 500 YEARS AFTER MUSLIMS CONQUERED JERUSALEM
Hello! I was reading about the crusades and i found this one thing strange.
I tried to search for answers but maybe I just didn’t put the words in the right way ( I couldn’t even find it in my og language ).
The only answer that can come to my mind is that maybe Europe wasn’t at its best in that time? So they took a sort of revenge after several years when they were at their best again?
Sorry if this sounds stupid as a question, but I’m really curious as I can’t find an explanation for it!
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the traditional narrative goes that the Angles,Saxons, and Jutes all invaded Britain, slaughtered the population, and pushed the rest to Wales and Cornwall. But i know that there is pushback against this narrative and that it wasn’t as cut and dry as previous historians believed.
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I'm trying to write (and learn myself by it) a paper about Franciscans' work in China. I got pretty good literature from a western perspective. But are there any sources from the Chinese/Mongols side? I couldn't find any translated into my language.
I want to know what the Chinese during the Yuan Dynasty and Mongols in neighboring states (like the ones John Montecorvino and Odoric of Pordenone visited) thought and view the Catholic faith (so I don't ask about views of Nestorian Christianity, but I wouldn't be mad if it were also posted.
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Yeah... Question is as simple as above.. ^
Genuinely curious.
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I've found a few papers/posts on the history of streetlights and electricity in Paris, but I can't seem to find an answer to that direct question.
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Obvious religion was a primary reason, but where did the stigma in the religion come from? Why did the human authors of religious texts feel the need to condemn it? Basically I want to know why the opinions of populations shifted so drastically.
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I know there were celtic tribes in a lot of countries (Ireland,England,Spain,Portugal,France,etc) but nowadays we seem to only call celtic nations to nations that were never invaded by neither Romans, Moors, or Germanic tribes. So why are Asturias considered Celtic, but France is not, when both got invaded by Roman empire and Germanic tribes, and neither speak Celtic languages?
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I'd like to know what r/askhistorians thinks of Shadiversity's content - whether it's factually correct, presenting the information in an unbiased manner, and any other criticisms you have of the channel.
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What else could Crassus have done to prevent the horrific defeat suffered by the Romans at The Battle of Carrhae? Why did he not build a nearby defensive fort? Why did he take so many infantry into the open desert? How were the Romans so clueless as to the impact of fast-moving, horse archers? Why did Crassus seemingly ignore support and offers of more troops, not come up with "ok, I'll take your troops, but not go north," counter offers and appear to dismiss every wise and experienced voice warning him of what he was walking into? Why was he so reckless? Why did he exhibit such lack of understanding of terrain usage and improvisation? Were the only options open to him those that he employed once the battle began?
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The other night I watched The Free State of Jones and it mentions a statistic about how many thousands of emancipated slaves were killed by the KKK in just the few years following Emancipation. Why wasn't there a mass migration north, to where they were more likely to be treated better? I know it's not a simple "pack your stuff and go" kind of thing, but there are ways to make it happen, forming caravans, etc. Staying in the former Confederate states after the war seems like hell.
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