[deleted]

My understanding of the educational essentialist movement is it is conservative in the sense of standardization. I am a college student and like many American students, went through an essentialist learning model k-12. Teachers reading out of textbooks with homework and exams. More specifically, I am trying to understand the foundational principles to educational essentialism. Did it result in teaching becoming seen more and more as a profession (pedagogy)? Also, what other models were considered for use, or used before hand?

Recently in a U.S. History class, my professor stated that the Lusitania was not only secretly carrying munitions, but also armed with deck guns. I know the British Navy used Q-ships (merchant vessels with hidden guns), but haven't been able to find any source stating the Lusitania was one of these ships.

Hello! I have been curious about pre Norman kingdoms of Britain recently. Partially inspired by The Last Kingdom. In the show they portray the Witan, composed of the lords of the kingdom, advising the king in all manner of ways, from advising to even helping decide the next king.

I'm wondering how accurate is this? Do we know what the actual function of the Witan was? Who was in the Witan? What powers did they have? What was the king's role? Could you consider the structure feudalism? Did lords swear fealty to the king like in a more French feudalism?

Overall I'm just trying to get a picture for what the government and ruling was like in pre Norman British kingdoms. Thanks!

I've been playing through Odyssey, which I believe takes place during the Peloponessian War. As I'm exploring the game there are a lot of places that are already "ruins" throughout the world, which seems crazy to me? Is that accurate? Was Greece already old enough by the 400s BCE to have ruins? How early did classical Greek society form? (and I'm using "classical" in a very laymen way, I'm sure it has a specific meaning to historians). Thanks!

[deleted]

I understand that early Europeans sought to learn as much as they could from the New World by sending scholars there to document findings. The example that comes to mind in particular is King Phillip II of Spain, who sent physician Fransisco Hernandez to the New World on a mission to learn about the various medicinal practices along with the use of herbs among the natives. From my understanding, the Mexica were extremely skilled healers due to their familiarity with the local plants, however, they did practice a lot of spiritual healing with help from the gods. Why weren't these practices deemed as witchcraft or sacrilegious by the Spaniards? Was this type of healing considered to be alternative from what the Europeans were used to? Was it just that the Spaniards were so desperate for doctors in the New World? Was there any debate/conflict among Spaniards over whether or not this information could be useful to them?

I've been looking into Libellus de Medicinalibus Indorum Herbis which documents the medicinal properties of plants used by Aztecs around 30 years after initial contact with Spaniards. Please feel free to provide any additional readings to further my knowledge! Thank you!

[A little background: I'm very interested in understanding the origins of the syncretic tradition of curanderismo/Mexican folk healing, which is influenced from a blend catholicism, Aztec and Mayan traditions, along with several other indigenous influences.]

Often cited as a cult of serial killers, notorious for their misrepresentation in Indiana Jones and the Temple of Doom and Victorian literature, some sources seem to claim they murdered as many as a million people, with Thug Behram having strangled hundreds. How accurate are these sources? Were they tall tales or inflated figures repeated as facts? What do we actually know about the group and its victims?

I've been wondering for a while what the general protocol was if two opposing pilots crash landed or parachuted out of their aircraft close enough to see each other. Would they walk away or open fire with side arms or say hello?

Reposting... third time's the charm?

Anyways, my vague sense of the period is that socio-cultural restraints were generally stronger on upper class women who were expected to be exemplars of their sex, so I'm certainly more interested in that slice, although I don't want to cut out any interesting angles that this question might cover within the lower segments of society.

My impression also is that the most easy way to have "independence" was to be a widow, probably with a young son who wasn't able to control his fortune himself. To be sure I'm also not cutting out them (although open to correction if I'm wrong there), but what I'm really interested is in those who aren't granted it by unfortunate (or fortunate?) circumstance. That is to say, a young woman raised in a good family, makes a fairly average marriage, and begins motherhood, or, of course, a woman from a good family who remains unmarried yet wants to do more than join a nunnery, or be an old maid in her father's house.

What avenues were available to women such as these to maintain a sense of self and control within the expectations of the society she lived in?

When it comes to French Revolution, one of the most alarming things that started it was France's financial debt.

I am aware France lend a lot of money to the US Revolution, but even if it meant they were out of money, it doesn't mean they borrowed it from anyone. Later, its also mentioned they "got out of debt", but I never heard it being said to whom that debt was finally paid, and when it was first borrowed.

Perhaps I just unconsciously missed a important detail, but I made a google search and watched some youtube videos, and couldn't find the answer.

I'm sorry if this is the wrong sub, but I realized that a lot of different cultures have similar stories, e.g there's a folktale about vampires in china, arab mythology has similar stories to European mythology (I don't know if mythology is the right word here), As I'm writing this I'm assuming that they must have come in contact in one or another, or are these just a part of human evolution?

Hi all, hope this is allowed.

I am trying to find a comprehensive list of locations for all (or at least a large number of) previous nuclear weapon (and related) sites in Ukraine prior to denuclearisation. I am struggling with the language barrier.. I have found some old maps/images but have no idea what I am looking at or reading (translation issues).

I am trying to create my own digital map with some brief historical context pertaining to the geopolitical relations between the US, Russia and Ukraine following denuclearization.

Does anyone know of any useful resource I can use? English friendly.

Thanks in advance

Hi All, I'm having an issue finding information on an incident that happened to my parents and sister in approximately 1971 - 1974. The plane they were on landed in Entebbe and was hijacked by Idi Amin. I can't find anything anywhere about this. They boarded a B.O.A.C. flight to Lusaka, stopping in Entebbe to refuel. My Dad remembers that on take off the VC10 aircraft that they were on was very heavy at the back indicating a very full cargo, the plane had few passengers. There was also a shipment of 1000 day old chicks going to a farmer in Zambia on board, the poor things obviously perished. After being stopped for 12 hours on the runway by the military. After they were taken through a harrowing customs experience and taken to a hotel. They were kept there for over 24 hours before being shuffled out and on to a British Caledonian flight to Lusaka. Its like history has been deleted. My father thinks that they took weapons off the plane, mortar bombs intended for the Zambian Army.

Does anyone know anything about this please?

I'm having trouble finding a straight answer.

I've been trying to figure out if the Federov Avtomat was considered a weapon of the same class, but it always comes down to the calibre it fired.

I am in no means a gun nut, so I have a limited understanding on the technicalities of this.

I love the Three Stooges, but I've always wondered about the question of how audiences originally saw them. Since the two reelers were only about 15 to 18 minutes long, how were they shown in theaters? Was one two-reeler movie shown before a full-length movie by someone else or were multiple two-reeler films by the Three Stooges shown in one sitting? Thanks! This question has been on my mind for so long because I'm just so used to seeing the Three Stooges on TV.

Hello there, I'm a history enthusiast with a fascination for linguistics. I was just wondering if archeologists are able to find out the pronunciation of words in languages that have long been extinct. Is it possible to actually know the original phonetic composition of such lost languages even if the way that people originally pronounced their words has been forgotten? And, if yes, how is it done?