As in the title, America was probably visited first by the vikings wayy back, but which visitor made it to California first?

I understand that much of it comes from Christianity blaming Jews for the death of Jesus, but even Mom-Christian nations seem to hate Jews. Is there a historical reason for this, or were they always just treated as being “other”?

After watching the "Overlord" trailer and reflecting on my love of Wolfenstein, Hellboy and Indiana Jones, I'm really curious.

I'm sure that the Nazis were not really summoning demons or building supernatural superweapons. Neither is it likely that they were digging for Arks and Grails.

Is there any basis in fact though? Were Hitler and top Nazis interested in the occult or superstitious in any way?

I know that the trope of the Nazi Zombies originates pulp comics of the 30s and 40s. So does that mean there is no truth?

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Topic. I’d love any recommendations for books or articles on the subject!

What is the history behind this split? Why are they considered different disciplines? What do historians of science do that regular historians don't?

My grandfather fought in the Malayan Emergency. He’s been deceased for a long time, though I have his photos scanned in digital fork and I find them too valuable not to share with the world. Any help would be appreciated.

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I'm currently listening to Roger Crowley's City of Fortune via Audible. He mentions that during the Third Venetian-Genoese War, a Venetian admiral pulls into a harbor in the Aegean Sea, scuttles his ships, waits for the Genoese to slink off, and then salvages the ships and sails away. How did sailors do this back then? Would they have had confidence that they could definitely rescue the ships and wouldn't be stranded?

After Rog and Bob left us it's hard for me to get the real true stories from Old Hollywood. Even they were too young for my liking.

B-Movies were the second features shown after the main major motion pictures sometimes called A-Movies and etcetera etcetera.

I understand that The B-Movies from The Eight Studios have something to bottom to but what about The B-Movies from tother studios since because all that they were making were B-Movies.

To my knowledge, Christianity had already established itself to some extent within the British Isles during the Roman period and was already the predominant religion amongst the Romano-British elite and urban population. Was it simply that the Christian presence, unlike in areas such as Gaul and Italia that were settled by the Franks and Longobards respectively, was so minimal that it was effectively overwhelmed by the influx of pagan Anglo-Saxons and vanished into obscurity before it could leave any real impact on them?

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I was recently reading about when Germany paid off their debt, but I was curious how it was divided between East and West Germany after World War II.

How did this become ordinary all over the world, when did this start? I know that some communities do not fall under this statement, for example: Sikh men keep their hair long, and some other exceptions, but apart from these communities, why is it normal in most of the world for men to have shorter hair and women to have longer hair?

I ask this because when I think of the GDR, I think of a tyrannical government controlling the lives of people who in large despise their government. I understand the discipline socialism can instill and how that can lead to a powerhouse when it comes to competition such as the Olympics (as we see in China and Russia today). However, to my knowledge the population of 1984 GDR versus, say 2014 Russia are not comparable in the sense of patriotism.

I also recognize the geopolitical power that can be gained from dominating the Olympics, but did the GDR really seek that at that point?

I know that there are a lot of factors that I don't know about, which is why I am here, asking you guys.

Thanks in advance

Ideally I'd like to know if the Junta worried about that at all and if not why didn't they? In general though, was there any concern from other parties about Britain and the use of nuclear weapons?

I remember reading somewhere that all European alphabets* derive from... Phoenician? Canaanite? Something like that. Which was a writing system derived from Heiroglyphs but with the innovation of having symbols depicting consonants instead of words. Is that correct? Could someone explain this with more detail?

*And, actually, Middle Eastern and African alphabets too. Possibly also Indian, but that was more contraversial, from what I remember. But I'm trying to narrow the question.