(Anarcho-syndicalism, rather than communism, would probably be a more accurate description) I was just wondering why was there such a large political shift in the region. What happened in Catalonia to cause this complete change of the region's political make up?
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I'm not exactly sure how to phrase the question I have in mind, but I think it'll become clear as I explain. It's a fairly broad question, and I'm happy to try and narrow it down if needed.
I enjoy history, but I'm no historian. Until about 5 years ago I always believed Columbus (hereon CC) was a good dude that wanted to explore and accidentally stumbled upon the Americas. Then I read a couple articles that suggested he was genocidal, a tyrant, and rotten to the core.
As Columbus Day or Indigenous Peoples Day is just behind us I wonder what parts of both narratives we can say are certainly true, and what parts can't be substantiated.
My understanding is that one side suggests some or all of the following:
On the other side, the narrative usually follows these points:
There may be other points that fit either or both narratives, these are simply the ones I'm most familiar with.
What can be said for certain about CC, and which things can't be substantiated?
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Why does this specific route have so much popularity today compared to other roads?
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Ffor the last 300 years, while in continental europe there had been multiple armed revolutions (french, 1848, paris commune, February and October), in mainland England we only have some rebellions, not full blown regime toppling revolution? Why?
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How would the ENGLISH peasants lives change, having FRENCH lords and a french king?
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I'm writing a biography of Cicero for school. Now I know Wikipedia is unreliable, but I like using it for some background reading to get a general idea. My main sources are Plutarch and Suetonius.
On Cicero's Wikipedia page it says that Brutus "called out Cicero's name, asking him to restore the republic when he lifted his bloodstained dagger after the assassination." The page cites Cicero's "Second Phillippic Against Antony", where Cicero states that Mark Antony accused Cicero of being part of the conspiracy and had told the story of Brutus calling Cicero's name. Cicero never actually says whether the story is true or whether Antony fabricated it.
Neither Plutarch or Suetonius record Brutus doing this, and since the cited speech is unclear I am unsure whether or not to believe it happened. Has anyone got any insight on this?
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I came across this in a history textbook. No one in my class, including the teacher could come up with a theory for the message it was trying to convey. Could anyone help?
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My father told me today that during the Trail of Tears Natives kept slaves so what happened wasn't "that" bad. I've been searching all over and can't find anything. Any help?
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Hi, Guys,
New to the community here and so far you guys are quite interesting and helpful individuals. I am a student here from the UK and I am currently studying Louis XIV (The Sun King).
Out of curiosity, I'd like to hear your thoughts on the question above.
I just know that when Louis XIV was crowned his interest in dancing was strongly supported and encouraged by Italian-born Cardinal Mazarin, (formerly Mazarini), who assisted Louis XIV. The young king made his ballet debut as a boy, but it was in 1653 as a teenager that he accomplished his most memorable feat as a dancer.
Thanks for your time.
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I've just read this Reuters article: http://uk.reuters.com/article/uk-taiwan-anniversary-president/taiwan-president-pledges-to-defend-freedoms-despite-china-pressure-idUKKBN1CF07X?il=0
which mentions of President Tsai Ing-wen:
China suspecting she wants to push for the island’s formal independence
The wording struck me as odd here. I'm aware of the general history around the Chinese Civil War, with the Nationalists retreating to Formosa. And I'm aware of the switch of diplomatic recognition to the PRC in the '70s.
What I don't quite understand is the "independence" bit. I don't really understand what a "formal indepencence push" by the ROC will achieve.
Presumably the ROC was considered independent and sovereign even during the war, and continued to be so up to the switch of diplomatic recognition. Did that "de-recognition" of status somehow "remove" the ROC's independence? Or is there some semantical error in this article/my brain? And that what Reuters really means is that the ROC is pushing for restoration of recognition as a sovereign state and formalising of foreign relations?
Or, even more out there, is the article talking about the ROC specifically formally declaring that the island of Taiwan is the "new" country and independence means formalising the pseudo-renunciation of claims to the mainland in 1991?
Put yet another way: What is the legal basis of the ROC's current status of independence and sovereignty (whatever that status may be), and what are so-called pro-independence politicians in the ROC looking to change in legal terms by a formal independence push?
(Btw, I used the ROC and PRC for simplicity's sake to represent the governments of the 2 different de facto states, and to try to avoid the "One China" confusion)
Edit: Formatting
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I came across this picture in a textbook and no one in my class, including my teacher could figure out what the specific message being conveyed was. Could anyone be of help?
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I've searched a bit on this subreddit but there's not a very satisfying answer to be found. I know about the principles behind the demographic transition that comes with industrialization (high birthrates and high deathrates pre-industrialization, high birthrates and low deathrates during industrialization, and low birthrates and low deathrates after industrialization), and apparently France went through this transition much more quickly than other countries. But I want to know the social, political, and economic factors that led to France spending very little time in that middle transition period with high birthrates and low deathrates. As a Frenchman at the time, would I notice a difference in my day-to-day life thanks to different demographic circumstances compared to my British or German brethren?
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I realize this is an enormous question, worthy of books; I'd be equally interested in macroscopic views of the whole pair of continents and smaller-scale discussions of regional and local trade.
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So my wife was rewatching Frosty the Snowman (it's going to be a long holiday season...) and the kids are in school on Christmas Eve.
The show aired in the late 60s. Was it common for there to be school on Christmas Eve in the US at the time?
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The book Skid Road: An Informal Portrait of Seattle by Murray Morgan begins with a description of Dr. David Swinson Maynard (Doc Maynard)'s trip from Ohio to Seattle in 1850, including excerpts from his diary. One entry from July 9th reads, "Kept guard for fear of Mormons." No additional context is given.
I'm aware of the Mountain Meadows massacre, but that wasn't until 1857. Were there other instances of violence against pioneers before then? Were Mormons a legitimate threat to pioneers?
For the curious, Doc Maynard's journal entry can be read online here.
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Link https://archive.cartoons.ac.uk/GetMultimedia.ashx?db=Catalog&type=default&fname=DL0059.jpg
Came across this cartoon while reading my history textbook and could not quite understand the meaning behind it. The cartoon states that Mussolini is being short-tempered due to Mussolini Jr,. who is a baby..? Who is Mussolini Jr. representing and why?
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