Basically just what the title asks. It seems like this type of thing only happened in the movies, but I'm curious to know if the way it's depicted is the way it happened in real life?

Is this more just a case of Americans liking to sanitize their history or is this depiction common in other countries as well?

In the film Dunkirk, the British pilots hail each other by saying 'Fortis Leader', 'Fortis 1' and 'Fortis 2', and in other WW2 films they sometimes call other 'Red 1 etc'. How accurate is this?

Did they stick to colours mainly, and did they count 'leader, 1 ,2', or was the Leader usually 1?

And did bomber command and the Americans use similar systems?

Mny thks for any info

Putting aside all unfortunate implications stemming from national socialism, you can see that the swastika symbol is present in cultures around the world, many of them isolated from each other. From the Americas to Ukraine to Scandinavia to Indonesia you see it with various regional twists. It also seems to very often have a similar meaning, one of prosperity and peace. What theories are there for why the swastika is so omnipresent in human culture?

I'm referring to the Celtic people of Britain who lived there during the Roman period, as well as right before and after.

By typical dress, I mean what was worn by the common people (not the Roman elite).

Threaten through letters, phone calls and stuff

Searching reveals that several questions have been asked about William Adams on this sub over the years, but none of them have answers. This had lead me to wonder how much we can really say we authoritatively know about the life and times of the man in the environment he found himself in when he shipwrecked on Japan.

From what I understand, much of what we know about William Addams stems from the letters he sent his wife and letters from other Europeans who interacted with him. They seem to be the source of some of the weightier facts about him, such as his status as an advisor and influence to Tokugawa Ieyasu. Do any Japanese primary sources corroborate the information gleaned from Adam's personal letters?

Even without this, it seems likely enough that Adams certainly became a samurai and figure of some reknown given that he is both revered and respected in Japan given that towns, festivals, and other monuments bear his name. Still, I'm curious about some of the finer details:

*Would Adams have received martial training as a samurai (Katana, spear, horseback riding) or was his status strictly social and ceremonial in nature? *Is there any indication Adams fought in the service of Ieyasu at any time? *Did Adams ever desire to return to England, or was he content to remain in Japan for the duration of his life?

Thanks for any contributions, and for all that you do here!

I know that germany fought a lot of battles with other axis countries like italy but did Japanese and german troops ever fight side by side

See title.

Lets say Germany attack a few weeks earlier, lets say Germany does not fight the stupid Battle of Britain and instead uses those Luftwaffe planes for Barbarossa and lets say the German fleet does not lose as much ships in Norway and does one concentrated invasion of Murmansk, cutting off the allied supplies to Russia, could Operation Barbarossa have succeded?

To be honest, I am not quite sure if this type of question is allowed.. But I just had an interesting discussion with a friend about this hence I asked.

EDIT: And if Africa maybe wouldnt have happened.

I know this is alot of what ifs and I understand if you guys cannot or dont want to answer this or if its against the rules.

[Long time listeners, first-time caller] I've read that East Africans have been in contact and trading with the Indian subcontinent for centuries, but do we know when the first Indian communities popped up in East Africa?

By late Republic I mean around Sulla's consulship.

How easily could a Plebeian become consul? Was Cicero an abnormal case for his time? What proportion of the Senate was Plebeian, Equite, Patrician?

Thanks in advance! I'm really enjoying learning the inner workings and politics of the Roman Republic at the moment.

So I was watching BBC's Egypt miniseries from 2005 and it makes the claim that when Jean-Francois Champollion deciphered Ramesses's cartouche, "his name was spoken aloud for the first time in a 1000 years".

Was his name really lost until the decipherment of hieroglyphs, and if so, how could anyone know whether this pronunciation was correct?

I live in the UK where speaking in tongues seems to be a rarity, but it appears much more prevalent in the US. What cultural and historical factors led the to rise of the pentecostal movement? And how far back does speaking in tongues go?