How did he get on with others from his unit(s) once his political career took off?
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Furthermore, was there any attempt to come up with separate, perhaps more literally accurate words for other types of targeted mass killings instead of expanding what Genocide encompass?
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I thought this was an interesting question that sort of got rejected and removed in another thread.
It's not me trying to make a case for what the Nazi's did. Absolutely not.
I don't really know how to word this without sounding completely insensitive, so I'll be blunt: Did it work? Did Nazi Germany actually help "purify" their heritage by murdering people with genetic disabilities?
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I've first heard this in John Lloyd's TED talk about the invisible and have since seen it in other places often to highlight Isaac Newton's religious side, but I've yet to see any primary sources where this was actually claimed by him. Is this something Isaac Newton actually said, or an apocryphal story?
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I feel like I would be wildly excited at the potential of a fantastical new landmass 'somewhere down there'. As an Australian now, it interests me what motivations the Dutch, French, Spanish, and Brits Kingdoms and peoples had with the discovery and what the public thought.
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I'm specifically interested in whether this overlap occurred in or around New Orleans, but answers that reference vodun/voodoo can span as broadly as Yoruba and other similar cultures that worship with Orishas.
Thanks for any insight!
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Or was it more of a civil engineering project to distract the Chinese people from internal issues?
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I've been doing some reading on it after seeing a blog post about it and while there doesn't seem to be a consensus on when it was written or what it is, many seem to propose it was an elaborate hoax that was meant to seem mystical. It made me wonder whether such things were common.
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Obviously not anything on the scale of Atlantis, or the like (I would assume?), but has there been any significant influence on a large cohort of people searching for a groundbreaking discovery that would change our view about the past/present/future? Sorry if this has been asked before!
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In 'I Claudius' I get the impression that the Romans by and large regretted the destruction of Carthage some even believing they were cursed for it (The Punic Curse). How accurate is this? Was the destruction of Carthage regarded with guilt by the Romans after it occurred. How do later writers refer to it?
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I'm not looking for paranormal books so much as I'm looking for books about demons as a concept, and how it fits into history. I guess I'm looking for a more academic history rather than a book for practicing demonologists/books from a faith or occult perspective.
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So lately I have been seeing this pop up, and I'm curious about it, because I haven't actually seen any sources about this. Are life expectancy estimates based on records, skeletal remains or neither? And how do infant mortality, war casualties and death in childbirth get computed into this number?
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I know the title is somewhat confusing (I'm sorry, I'm bad at forming complex sentences, I know it's something I need to work on), but I'll break it down here.
So I was looking at this map, and I noticed that there seemed to be a clear contrast between the state of the countries then conquered by France versus the countries that were conquered by Italy for the most part. I understand why the places occupied by Belgium are so screwed up to this day (mainly thanks to the policies enacted by King Leopold the II that caused severe damages to the populations for entire generations).
To what extent can the present day problems and successes of Africa be attributed to their former European conquerors (I know not all of Africa was conquered, but based on that map, a lot of it was)?
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It seems that both Axis and Allied powers greatly respected eachother (the men fighting anyway..) and could be described as a gentlemens war, with many acts of commeradie involving both sides well documented and regularly practiced, such as POW camps and medics.
However, compare this to WW2, it seems to be completely different.
Can anyone explain the factors that influenced the 'Gentlemeness' in WW1 as opposed to WW2?
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Thanks
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The Balkans were inhabited by the Illyrians, who made a living through plunder, and yet were in a prime trading location. When the Romans conquered them, they didn't see a resurgence like western Europe did. When Venice was a powerhouse in trade, the Balkans never joined in too much. What prevented them from using all these opportunities? Thanks.
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Good evening and thank you for your time in advance!
I was reading up on Piano tuning recently, and I came across this:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/A440_(pitch_standard)
In it, it says that in the Baroque Era, A = 415 Hz and A# = 440 Hz. Today, A = 440 Hz, which to me says that all instruments were pitched up by about a half step. To me, the logcial conclusion to this is that Baroque Era pieces would have to be transposed up by a half stop in order to be faithfully recreated. However, to my knowledge this is not done.
I know that transposing does change the sound of a piece. So my question is, why do we not compensate for tuning such as this for classical pieces?
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Why is France's population growth rate so low? its 0.41% in 2017 even though it has 66 million people.
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Is it true that the Ancient Greeks left much more written records behind than other civilizations (in antiquity)?
I think most "Westerners" have the impression, that the Ancient Greek, and subsequently the Romans as they more or less adopted many things Greek, were the main writers of the antiquity. However how true is it?
I know for example that India also had a rather literature, as it had epics like the Ramayana, which is twice as long as the Illiad and Oddysey combined, and Mahabharata, which is ten times larger than the Illiad and Oddyssey combined. Though it seems like that's it for that time period. Something that resembles Greek literature with known authors and plays appears about a millenia later, about 200 CE.
The same with Chinese literature. Though not having large epics, Confucius has written the Four Books and Five Classics about 300 BCE and Sun Tzu The Art of War. Though that appears to be mostly it, there are no other big authors until much later. I think one factor may be that literacy was harder acquired with the Chinese logographic writing system.
Reading the wikipedia article of Egyptian Literature, it shows several texts, which most, if not all, pre-date Greek literature, however I don't know how long they are. All also appear to be authorless.
It may be the conformation bias and the overall unfamiliarity with the other literatures, but the best way to put it is that other's literatures are less "extensive" at least in the antiquity IMO. Like there are no writings about philosophy or discussions over it, writings about other cultures or plays. I think you get the idea.
So how right is this impression of mine? If it is right, is it because they just weren't interested in writing or were there other reasons? Or did the literature of other civilizations just not survive the test of time?
TL;DR: Is it true that the Ancient Greeks left much more written records behind than other civilizations (in antiquity)? If yes, why?
Thx in advance
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