I'm particularly interested in the evolution of equipment and tactics throughout this time period. An emphasis on why changes in tactics were adopted and specifics about what happened in various battles to shift the meta, so to speak, would be amazing.

I'm mostly curious about Europe, but wouldn't mind treatments on when tactics that evolved differently clashed.

If so, why? The internet was not helpful

I've heard that it had a lot to do with the cliffs of Britain but it seems with about 4 years between the conquering of France and D-day taking place they would have had sufficient time to come up some sort of plan.

If the US-led bombing campaigns and strategic maneuvering had been less effective would the largely American forces have had a difficult time fighting the Iraqis, or was the Iraqi military simply too outmatched to compete on any level with its western counterparts?

Follow-up question: to what extent can the First Gulf War be considered a late colonial war?

Specifically in muslim controlled states prior to the ottomans. Also I am not talking about mercenaries from Europe but native minorities

I've been wondering for some time about this... The question originally was about the control of Tin sources during Bronze Age Warfare - since tin/copper is key for the production of bronze weapons, wouldn't large warring entities try to deny access to these raw materials to their opponents? What were the main sources of metals to the Assyrians, Hitites, Egyptians, Medes, etc, and was there ever any kind of economic blockade concerning resources of strategic military value? Or was it that the quantities used at the time were much smaller than what was available and to easy to smuggle. Or else, that weaponry production did not spike in times of war but that armies were equiped with whatever was available at the time, hence it would be pointless to deny access. And if nobody thought of that during the bronze age, surely, by Iron Age with increasing trade in the Mediterranean, there must have been some form of economic blockade. If not before, I would bet the Punic Wars make a good example, but I'm honestly puzzled. Please, enlighten me on this.

I recently read Las Cartas de relación by Hernán Cortés in Spanish class, and I was intrigued by the variety of animals and foodstuffs the Aztecs had in their marketplace, at least according to Cortés. I would like to know how meals of the Aztecs (and other American empires like the Incas) looked like, and what foods were considered luxuries by people of these empires. Thank you.

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When did the two differentiate? Old English seems to be subject-verb-object like modern English, and I've looked at Old German but I can't figure out how that works.

Why does some regions in the world managed to preserve their traditional attires and make them wear in everyday life?

For example, why does countries like Afghanistan, Pakistan, Yemen, Gulf countries and Bhutan and probably some places in Africa managed to preserve their traditional clothing and wear it as in daily life?

Is the reason because of convenience in wearing traditional clothes than western modern day clothes? Like for example, in Pakistan, it is a lot more convenient to dress in shalwar kameez because of the weather and environment and other factors?

I mean why do at least 95% of the world's everyday dress completely got replaced by western modern clothes? And that the traditional clothes value is immensely reduced to those of wearing for special occasions like for marriages or some holidays only? I think if there are no special holidays or occasions, all these traditional attire would completely perished for oblivion from the world history.

And if Karl is Hermann's grandson, is he the son of the child that Hitler was godfather to?

In "The Renaissance" Jerry Brotton notes in a startlingly brief throwaway comment that "sexual appliances", which I interpret to mean sex toys, were one of the "esoteric but prized goods that reached Europe from east and west", but then says nothing more on the matter!

• So first off... what sort of sexual appliances are we talking about?
• Where were they being imported from?
• Who would be the consumer of these?
• How widespread would their presence be in Europe?
• How public would their presence be in Europe?

To what extent did Romani Gypsies know where they came from (as an ethnic group)? If you spoke to the average poor and maybe illiterate Romani in the early 19th century would he/she have known they had ancestry in India?

For example you have ethnic groups like Parsis in India who for centuries passed down the knowledge of where they came from (Persia/Iran) and how they ended up in India. Is that the case with Romani Gypsies, or did they just not have a clue until modern genetic and linguistic studies indicated they came from India over 1000 years ago?

I was looking at a map and realized that the Germans never did make it very far into Russia. If they had gotten past Moscow and Stalingrad, did they have a point where they would've stopped, or where they trying to get all the way to the east coast?

I'm reading a translation of Hesiod's Theogony and many of the goddesses and mortal women are described as "neat-ankled" or similar. Is there a reason the ankles are singled out?

What would influence voters to vote for a particular candidate?