Did a general in the SS outrank a Wehrmacht general, for instance? Would it work like that?

[deleted]

I am writing a story based on a fake knight in the 14th century. I need to incorporate the religious views, classist views, and the things like that.

Any recommendations? Thanks. First time posting here so not sure if this is allowed.

Surly there were some pretenders to the Byzantine throne kicking about 400 years after the fall of Constantinople? Or if lacking that, why didn't they just turn to a prominent Greek family and ask them to be king?

I mean, of all people to pick as your first king, they pick Otto, who doesn't speak Greek and who is the wrong religion. And not only that, but a minor at the time! He couldn't even be actual king for a few years.

Is there some Realpolitik that I am missing here?

The Wikipedia article on WWI says so but it stood out to me as questionable with only one source.

My wife and I were just talking last night about this over dinner. We understand that, even today, not everyone eats breakfast/lunch/dinner, but it does seem to be the standard meal routine most people plan around. When did this routine emerge? Do we even know?

I read about how Richard Cobden, a member of the British parliament in 1860 suggested that that it was far better to simply pay the war profiteers a small fraction of the cost of war and to spare the rest of society the burden of fighting and dying.

Similarly, Lance.E.Davis and Robert.A. Huttenback concluded in their study that the British as a whole did not benefit economically from the Empire.

So, I know that a lot of people gained because of the Empire, but was their gain miniscule compared to burden imposed on the ordinary British taxpayers?

Edit - Typos

My (limited) understanding of history has led me to the conclusion that there is usually a cultural or economic drive for major social changes. The Roman Empire was a military and cultural power (even in decline) that dramatically exceeded the influence of Jewish and nascent Christian societies - and yet somehow in the span of a few hundred years the Romans converted from a religion that essentially was rooted in Ancient Greek times (thousand+ years old) to Christianity.

Usually when a like conversion is undertaken, it seems like its done because the culture/economy of the adoptee is inferior to the culture/economy of the adopted religion's society. eg: native cultures with relatively lesser technology adopting Catholicism in the 20th century.

What motivated the Romans to abandon Old Gods for the New?

I mean Jewish in a religious sense, rather than an ethnic sense, if that matters (maybe it doesn't matter because they inter-married, I don't know, I don't know a lot about them).

Is there a historical consensus on this? In Venice I remember reading that once the people elected their Doge after Roman rule collapsed, but how and when did they come to value democracy? And what about other Italian merchant republics?

In my history class we are going over the French and Indian war, so my teacher showed us battle scene from a movie showing the British troops marching into combat. When did the idea of this type of combat change?

[deleted]

Aside from bullying him into the clergy

Hi Guys, i have a couple of questions about the politics in the Dutch Golden Age just like the title says. I would like in-depth answers if possible.

What kind of govermant form did the Nederlands use in the times of the Golden Age?

Was slavery a thing? If yes did many people own slaves?

What were the Dutch foreign policies and overall relations with England, France and the HRE?

BTW: This is not Schoolwork/Homework. I know these are very specific questions but these are for my personal research. Also sorry for any bad grammar.

I've always read how Britan and France were just about ready to give up, with French troops committing mutinies. Why weren't the Germans able to break them?

I remember reading a story when I was younger about an encounter between Publius Cornelius Scipio Africanus and Hannibal Barca sometime after the battle of Zama where Africanus asked Hannibal who he considered the greatest general of all time. According to this book, Hannibal answered that Alexander was the greatest general, Pyhrrus of Epirus was the 2nd greatest, and that Hannibal himself was the third greatest, before detailing that if Hannibal had won at Zama he would have considered himself the greatest.

Now, I recently re-read this book and noticed it seemed to have some iffy claims, so I was wondering if anyone had an answer to this. It was always one of my favorite anecdotes so I'd really appreciate knowing if there's any truth to it.

Been trying to get an answer to this for three years now.

A button is a basic mechanism we have for activating a device. Do we know the origin of buttons?

Gonna be hard to explain because I've tried to type this out a few times and what I want to ask is kinda hard to put into words.

So I take German and I know bits of Irish and right now we're learning about the Nominative, Dative and Accusative cases in German, and in Irish I struggle with Lenition and Eclipsis and I just wonder - how old is stuff like that? I know ancient and medieval languages had stuff like Conjugation, Lenition and Eclipsis but what I am wondering is did they have terms for that? If you were learning a Germanic language would a teacher say "We conjugate X with Y in Z situation" or would it be more of a "We do this because that is the way our language is spoken."