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I remember reading somewhere that the English offered the colonies representation in Parliament, but the colonies rejected the offer. But now I can't find a source for that anywhere. Is this complete BS?

I may be proven wrong, but this deeply sounds like it's a myth?

Back when humans were hunter gatherers the average height for men is said to be 5'9 or 175cm. When agriculture came we started having a decline in height with males averaging 5'3 or 160cm and the emphasis is on how our nutrition changed. But now that we can eat a varied diet the average male height went back and higher to 5'10 and we are taught to sleep 8 hours nonstop. But how did hunter gatherers manage their sleep? I assume they simply can't just sleep 8 hours straight since they need to constantly move and the wild is completely unsafe.

Please correct me if I'm wrong on some or most of what I said.

I'm currently in the mindset that news spread relatively slowly as riders relay messages all around the Empire.

So for instance, an emperor dies and is replaced by his successor in Rome. How long generally would it take for that news to reach a far off place such as Brittania or Armenia at the edges of the Empire? Thanks!

From what I've read, horseback riding began in Western Asia around 6000 years ago, but didn't reach Egypt until about 3700 years ago. Egyptian and cuneiform records go back about 4500 years, before horseback riding had reached that region. Was the arrival of horseback riding to these regions recorded?

Were there any writings where people mentioned that riding horses had suddenly become "a thing," or is it just suddenly mentioned that Ramses had an army of chariots.

After German ex-chancellor Helmut Schmidt died earlier this year, I read in an obituary that a former aid mentioned that Schmidt and his wife Loki explained geopolitics to him in about an hour by way of historical development. I am neither a historian nor a politician, but I would certainly love some hints/references (ideally books) that would allow me to acquire such knowledge. Any tips are much appreciated, thanks.

How did the Irish soldiers in fighting in the Brittish army during world war 1 react to the news of the !916 easter rising?

And did the Brittish army have any fear that it would lead to the irish deserting or betraying them?

Np.reddit.com/r/dataisbeautiful/comments/4psn1x/6000_years_of_urbanization_in_3_minutes/

Were there specific schools? Were music schools accepting? Or was most of their education Kong formal?

Modern militaries have marching bands. Their use, to the best of my knowledge, is to help troops keep a unified pace while marching. I think I remember reading somewhere that they [(snare) drums] were also used to help coordinate troup maneuvers during the time of line infantry battles (feel free to correct me here).

The use of "war drums", "war horns", etc. has become a staple of battle scenes in movies set at ancient times (and to a lesser extend medieval times). They are depicted to be used mostly by the move "savage" side of the battle, like Vikings, Picts, or any other "tribal" faction.

Is this depiction actually based on historical facts? Do we know if the ancient greeks used war drums to pump up their soldiers? Do we know Vikings, Picts, Scots, etc. used horns, badpipes, etc. prior and during the battle to intimidate the enemy and get ehri own men fired up? etc.

While my question is mainly aimed at the use of intruments for psychological battle-related purposes, if you have knowledge about other military-related use of intruments (signalling, keeping pace, facillitating maneuvres, etc.) during ancient and medieval times, please feel free to share - I'd be quite interessted in learning how the typical day/duty of a "musical specialist" in an ancient army would have looked like.

I understand there is no definitive answer but I'm wondering if there is any consensus amongst historians on this issue. If World War II is considered to have been inevitable but the Treaty of Versailles is not the main factor, what other factors are involved?

Recently saw someone claim that "less then 4% of southerns had slaves." Is this a valid percentage? Or would it have been more?

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IIRC, I've read some contradictory things so I would appreciate it if someone could set me straight:

When close fighting other infantry - after the pila have been thrown - would most Roman legionnaires be holding in their non-shield hand a gladius or some sort of spear?

How far would soldiers be standing from each other in close fighting? Close enough to form a shield wall, or was there some space between each man and the man to his right or left?

When fending off a cavalry charge, would most Roman legionnaires use their pilum as a spear, or would they throw it? Was there another weapon they had that they would use as a spear to fend off cavalry charges?

If it depends on the time period, I'd like to know about (a) during the third century BC, (b) after the Marian reforms, and (c) early fourth century.

Thank you

Once upon a time, there was a king executed by his own government, and years later, the son had everyone involved with his father's execution killed, except for the actual executioner, who's identity was unknown.

who was this king? if i recall correctly, it's a real story, i just don't remember who/when/where

I remember rather recently reading a post which I cannot for the life of me find now which went into the preparedness of the German state and military, it's advantages and disadvantages over it's neighbours, what led to it's early successes and whether any European leader really thought war could be avoided. Being unable, despite a fair bit of searching, to find said post, I thought this sub to be one of the best places to ask these questions.

Also asked this on r/WarCollege but thought this sub might also be able to help on the more historical and less strategic element of the question particularly.

Also if anyone recognises/knows the post I'm talking about a link to it would be greatly appreciated.