I've come across this dichotomy a few times recently...the pros/cons of using mounted infantry that dismounts to fight versus "true" cavalry. It's my understanding that dragoons were used as a precursor to "unconventional forces" - raiding, skirmishing, and the like. Is this the case? And what advantage, if any, would they have over a truly mounted force? I'm looking primarily at Western Europe and possibly the US, 1700-1900 or so.

Is this kind of eurocentric, or is it a legitimate periodisation? What makes a society, or the world as a whole, 'early modern'??

America is the most country to ever exist, however the 2016 election's rhetoric has revolved around the notion that it's not as powerful as it used to be and that it's near collapse. Did the people of the Roman Empire ever underestimate themselves or doubt their empire?

In History class, I learned that the Continental Army was running so short on gunpowder during the American Revolution that at one point, there was talk of arming the troops with bows and arrows. How are muskets more effective than bows and arrows, considering rate of fire, cost, accuracy, damage, ease of use, etc? Thanks.

Say, for instance, Alexander the Great were talking to Aristotle: would he have said, "Hey, Aristotle" or "Hey, [more typical name]"?

The expedition, supposedly both the largest and most sophisticated in the history of the battle site, was followed by documentary makers for the British TV station Channel 4. In the film, the experts (both within and without the expedition) claim that the new evidence changes our received wisdom on the events considerably. In one case particularly the official account of the action is shown to be a falsification.

Has this film been accepted into reality by mainstream naval historians? Must revisions be made?

Also, what was the effect of this on the combat effectiveness in Vietnam?

I'd like to know about the extent it actually effected the units, both platoon and company level but also on regiment and division level. I'm aware that it reduced the combat effectiveness but I'm unware of the true extend.

Lastly, how common place was the use of drugs and alcohol in each year?

Do you guys think this will prove to be a significant discovery, or do you think it's been blown out of proportion?

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I've read from multiple accounts (the only one springing to mind right now being Wiesel's Night) that prisoners would give up on God and their faith in general, but is there any account of conversion to preemptively avoid persecution? Or, as the title stated, were the other parts of being Jewish as important to the Nazis?

Edit: I just remembered about how big a factor heritage was, how having Jewish parents or grandparents could be used against someone; I may have answered the 2nd part of my question, but would still appreciate conformation. I am still curios about the first part of the question.

Did medieval warriors train under gym like codification? It seems really beneficial (more so than now) to be extremely strong or dexterous in martial combat (close quarters with swords and the like). Did warriors train in a way specific to building muscle or did it just come with swordplay?

I figure you can't really adjust Roman coins or something of that ilk for inflation to the modern era, so there must be some point where adjusting for inflation gets tricky and money gets weird because currency changes.

Spain and Portugal had enormous, early, rich, colonial empires. Portugal in particular had a vast number of widespread colonies across the continents. Why were these kingdoms unable to parlay that colonial success into being global powers through the 19th and 20th centuries? I'm comparing to France and Britain, specifically.

As I understand it, Seppuku was a Japanese form of suicide due to dishonor or similar, often for samurai. Was it still a thing by the time of militarist Japan in WW2? Did a losing general consider committing seppuku if he survived after grave losses, for example? Just a curiosity. Thanks in advance!

Wasn't sure if this is the 1930s theme as it was more 1940s, but history from actual people is interesting either way imo.

Aside from the those deported or executed. Were they forced to help the war effort or were they simply left to carry on with their lives? Google hasn't helped so thought I'd try here. Thank you in advance!

It's often put forward that the RAF tricked the Luftwaffe by offering this story as an explanation for their high night kills which were actually scored by means of a new secret radar system. Although many believed the carrots propaganda, were the Luftwaffe among them? If not, were they aware of the radar system?