Mainly interested because recently on Reddit there's been some links to news stories dealing with Christians and Muslims worshiping the same god, and I've seen in the comments occasionally a guy claiming to be a Jewish guy (one specific commentator actually in multiple threads) argue that Christians and Jews don't worship the same god because the divinity of Jesus is incompatible with the Jewish conception of god, but that Islam's view of god was compatible with the Jewish understanding of god.

It made me really curious to know what the Jewish theologians familiar with Islam thought about it. I'm asking about medieval ones because my impression is that that's when the great Jewish theologians lived - and lived in Islamic societies.

In his autobiography Johann Wolfgang von Goethe mentions his short sting clerking at the Reichskammergericht in Wetzlar and IIRC a rather large backlog of cases that hadn't been adjudicated.

What were typical examples of cases the Court heard at his time? To what extent was the Court an independent institution? What actual powers did it possess and what was its role concerning the power struggle between the various members of the late HRE?

Why did the people in East Germany "play along" with the occupying soviets?

More specifically, why would the Germans form an army that would oppress their own people? to whom the soldiers swore allegiance to? the east Germany soviet party or to the SSSR? For example how could Germans shoot Germans jumping over the Berlin wall?

Also how does a country that just had over 10 year of nazism, transition to communism just like that?

I recently read that the Graffito of Esmet-Akhom is the last known use of Egyptian Hieroglyphs and that it was created around 391 AD. If this is true, then it means that the Romans had ruled Egypt for over 400 years. How is it possible that there were NO contemporary Latin writers who thought to transcribe or translate the language?

Who was trying to gain power, and did anyone try to position themselves to be king or leader post-war at any point? What were their aspirations and what do we know about their intentions?

Hey guys. Long story short but I got into (a very dumb) argument with my father over World War 2 casualties.

He was saying that 90% of all World War 2 deaths were Whites, not including Asians because, well, obviously many Asians died. So basically "World War 2 deaths minus Pacific Theater Axis deaths". I was arguing that there is NO way that 90% of people that died in World War 2(again, bar Asians) were White. I couldn't think of an actual "guesstimate" answer, but if I had to, i'd say it would be closer to 75-80%.

I don't know what the "rough" % actually would be, but here is why I think he is wrong:

A. Africa. Wikipedia states that 100k Ethiopians died, and that is just one country. I know that it was just a few countries in N. Africa where WW2 battles were actually fought, so not a huge part of Africa, but it is still a few countries. While not extremely dense population wise in these countries, i'm sure they still fought in many towns/cities, and i'm sure people from these countries helped fight(and die).

B. The non-white, soldiers (and "non-civilians"), mostly in the US and UK that fought. Not sure if this is a significant number or not, but I know in the US it isn't a small one. Mostly black folk but everyone knows the history of the "Code Talkers" too.

C. France. I couldn't really find a ton of info on how many non-whites there were in France around 1938-1940, but it's been my (possibly wrong) understanding that France has been, for quite some time, one of if not the most ethnically diverse European nations, a large portion being Africans from various countries, Muslims, and people of non-white color who aren't immigrants and have been in France for generations(basically what I mean by this are black/brown folk whos families have been there for 1+ generations).

D. The Middle East. My info on battles fought in the Middle East during WW2 could use some catch-up, and I know it wasn't a hotbed of battle like parts of N. Africa were, but there for sure were Persian/Arab/other Muslim/Middle Eastern demographic deaths.

If anyone has some decent/solid info on this, it would be greatly appreciated. I LOVE History and especially this time period, but I have never really heard much on this specific topic. Any help/info is appreciated.

Plus, it really irks me when we get into arguments over this kind of stuff, because he rarely if ever has any solid info or facts to back his stuff up, while I always have at least something to show. Typically I won't argue with someone about stuff like this unless I know for sure, but this is something I think i'm in the right in despite not (yet) having info to back it up significantly.

Thanks guys!

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Wikipedia doesn't give any details beyond Benes agreeing to it.

Why did the Soviet Union want Ruthenia?

What, if anything, did Czechoslovakia get from the deal?

Why did the Soviet Union not annex pieces of territory from any other Eastern Bloc states?

Did the US, UK, or France make any statements or objections to this?

The whole thing just seems kind of strange. Like after a massive war and taking in half of Europe under its influence, the USSR just decides it wants a small chunk of Czechoslovakia to be Soviet territory?

There are some things floating around online that some Native Americans (which nation is never specified) would treat the women with reverence during their menstrual cycle, that the men would take over chores, etc. Other things I've read online claim that this was seen as a time of magic. Obviously these are from unverified sources, but is there any truth to any of these claims? How was menstruation viewed among various native nations?

It seems as if a lot of people could have been held liable for the titanic sinking. Who was investigated and ultimately held responsible?

I know it's always bothered me that they don't line up anymore, so I was wondering what the Romans thought of it? This is a bit of a strange question, I know.

Generally you hear about the British, French, American, and sometimes Germans (in Africa), but did countries like India or China ever try to colonize other places in the last few hundred years? If not, why? Did they just not have the navy for it?

A group of friends have been scouring the net for the origins of steel-cut oats to no avail. Maybe the food historians (/u/agentdcf?) or archaeologists (of Britain?) can help us?

We find that steel-cut oats are also known as "Irish" oats, so are they from there?

When did steel-cutting begin - the industrial revolution?

Why are they marketed as "steel" cut, rather than simply "cut" / "chopped"? What is the significance of steel, if any, or is the designation simply meant to contrast with stone (as in milled / ground)?

Thanks all!

For example I wonder if people ever wrote "I wish it had captured the color of my suit" or "I look better in a mirror as this fails to capture my youthful glow." Or if they simply didn't conceive of photos as having color therefore never thought about it. I know this is difficult to answer so sorry for that; hoping someone remembers an excerpt or relevant book. Thank you!

Any answers are appreciated.

Patton famously wanted to continue the war against the USSR, and presumably some voices within the USSR would have argued likewise. If the use of atomic bombs in Japan in August 1945 put a brake on potential conflict, could either side have continued the war given their actual circumstances in May 1945? Did it nearly happen?

I've been trying to track this down, but there doesn't seem to be a definite unified answer. The most common one I've seen is Morroco, but I've also seen several people say the Netherlands, and even a few say the Republic of Ragusa.

So my question is: who was it?