I haven't been able to find a response to this here, but I apologize if this is a repeat. I'm a teacher who is looking for a more transnational perspective to share with my class than what I was taught and I'm not sure how to answer students who will ask this question. Thanks for any help you can give me.
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Like for example Britain or French colonies? Or German?
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Was reading a book from 1950 by A. A. Vasiliev on Justin I who, while he didn't explicitly make the claim, seemed to tacitly agree with other historians in this time period that the Slavs were already in the Balkan region before the 6th century, and that specifically Justinian, if not actually slavic, had slavic ancestry (p.50 for reference).
Now, I'm used to thinking the Slavs didn't appear in the record until the mid 6th century and they were still on the other side of the Danube then, with them not moving into the Balkans until the late 6th century along with the Avars. I'm pretty sure this is still the case with western historiography, but I'm curious if eastern european or russian historiography still differs, considering that it would serve slavic nationalistic purposes for Justinian to be of Slav descent.
I'm very mindful too, that this could be the perspective Vasiliev is writing from, considering 1950 is not too far from the "race-obsessed" nationalism of pre to WW2 period, and that even if this belief is debunked amongst slavic scholars, I'm curious if it is still retained amongst popular sentiment.
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I've been listening to old radio a lot - think Jack Benny, Jimmy Durante, George and Gracie etc.
In several episodes they make a joke about someone marrying a smudgepot. Usually something like "No, we never had children. You see, I married a smudgepot. But we are lousy with oranges."
Now, I know what a smudgepot is, but I don't understand the married/lousy with oranges comments. Google was no help so I hope someone here knows what the heck they mean.
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With tea consumption being as important as it was, how did the Americans obtain it during the war? Were there significant sources of tea outside of British holdings, or did smuggling cover American demands well enough? Or did we rely on some kind of homegrown version?
Mostly asking out of curiosity, and wondering if there has been any historical treatment of the issue.
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My grandmother told me how my Grand-Uncle (who was a doctor and officer in the US navy during WW2) participated in both the invasion of Normandy and the battle of Iwo Jima. Would this have been possible?
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Due to its dissolution and long-held Western views, we always focus on the bad aspects of the USSR in the West. Can you give some aspects of Soviet policy/culture/achievements that equalled or surpassed their Western equivalents?
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EU4 player who knows very little about southeast asia outside of that (general geography and states in SE Asia in 1444). I want to know more about my bitter Rival
ps What's the relationship between this kingdom and the Kingdom of Siam of "the king and I" fame?
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Edit
My thinking is why wasn't the term Mamluke tainted forever, they would come back later on to rule.
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Would Ancient Greeks have been as excited by the thought of colonizing Sicily as the major European powers were of colonizing the Americad?
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After 1945 the British and American governments recruited and hid members of the Nazi research teams in physics, biology, chemistry, electronics, rocketry, and other areas. These scientists helped the Americans in starting the NASA satellite and rocket programs.
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What with Tutankhamun being back in the news recently, I began wondering about the more esoteric aspect of Ancient Egyptian archaeology. Tutankhamun's mummy as been unwrapped, and there are quite a large number of mummies on display in various museums. Could such things not be considered the desecration of corpses?
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Aside from the Hotchkiss, I think that one is pretty well known.
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I took a music appreciation class at Brevard College 15 years ago, and the instructor spent some time explaining the evolution of music in ancient China. He said, (and I'm fairly certain that our textbook corroborated it), that a certain emperor outlawed the 4th note of the diatonic scale. And then another emperor came along shortly after and outlawed the 7th note. So it left composers of the day with just the 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6, or the pentetonic scale that is characteristic of traditional Chinese music. ... Now I can't find that old textbook, and I have Googled extensively, but have not been able to confirm this. Can anyone help me?
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