I don't think there was an actual Jesus, since the writings about him were never from eyewitnesses. Those who cite him are either biased or fake. But, there are records of christians during the first century which make me wonder how the legend of the Christ survived among them. Is this something normal that other myths share?

I was wondering, given the huge distance between Paris and Moscow, did the French troops walk there? So by the end of the war, there were Frenchmen who had walked to Moscow and back?!

So yeah maybe my assumption is outright wrong, and possibly my terminology is wrong as well, but what i'm interested in is this - throughout most of (European) history, wars to me seem like a series of 'compartmentalized' or 'discrete' engagements that are fairly quickly over before the two sides disengage for a noticeable period of time.

Except from some point onwards, it feels as if things suddenly got bigger and longer (tee hee) and much more fluid. Like no longer would two armies meet at a place of their choosing and battle for a few hours. Now it's a continuous (well not really, but you get the idea) line of much more soldiers spread over a long frontline, various parts of which are seemingly always engaged with the enemy at some point in time.

Like - I imagine hundreds or thousands of knights and men at arms meet on a field and hack away at each other until one side breaks. The other pursues. After a while they call it a day. Losing side recovers, nobles raise more troops, lick their wounds, it takes a long time for another battle to be 'set up'.

Fast forward couple of centuries - in, say, WW1 I imagine an extremely long frontline where things are constantly happening. Not everywhere, but also not without a day where a probe, an attack, an artillery barrage, something happening. Constant something versus intermittent sometimes, if I'm making any sense?

Am I wrong in thinking the above? Am I oversimplifying centuries of warfare? Am I overthinking the intensity of more recent warfare? Or am I somehow not entirely incorrect - in which case, how did all this happen, was it a gradual shift or did come about as a result of a particular conflict/development/period of history?

I have been pondering on this. It is my understanding that it's an English translation of the Dutch '''Kanaal'' which of course means man made waterway.

So how did the English Channel get it's name?

In the book The shoes of the Fisherman, the Pope Kiril I pledges to sell the Church's property in order to fight the Chinese famine.

Could a real Pope do this? Are some of the Church's property mankind cultural heritage, and thus, it can't be sold or bouhgt? Could the Pope decide to open to the public the Vatican museums and gardens, and made them be free entry? If not, who holds that power?

And did George VI had any comments about being allied with the Soviets during WW2, with the same authority that overthrew the cousin of his father?

// Sorry for the typo in the title. George V, not Georg.

Think Josh Brolin (US Accent), Simon Pegg (British Accent), Wilfred/Jim Jefferies (Australian Accent).

What is it about the USA that seems to so efficiently strip immigrants of their accent?

Is the US accent just a byproduct of immigrants trying to disguise their heritage?

Is it more Germanic or Irish than British?

Edit: Specificity

Was it widely known/covered? Was there outrage and condemnation? Did Saddam and his allies attempt to suppress evidence of the attacks?

I've found a lot of good stuff describing life and travel in the west, but haven't had much luck locating things like exact prices of goods and services, wages, or maps. I would love to find some maps of locales like Dodge City, if such a thing exists, but my google fu has so far failed me, and my local library doesn't have much. I asked in /r/history a week or so ago and never got a response.

By calling posts "joke answers", you're actually giving those people power by acknowledging them. Just delete comment and move on. I think people trust you mods enough that if you delete a comment, you had a good reason to do so.

Are there historical records/accounts of the 10 plagues, and (evidence-based) theories on their causes?

Clearly there had to be some event that started the decline the lifestyle of looting and pillaging. Mostly, I'm focusing on why Viking raiders stopped with all that.

Were there any events that restructured the praetorian guard? Why did they allow an emperor to rule them? What was their role after the death of Julius Caesar?

Just some questions I thought of but I want to know as much as I can.

Sorry if it's too difficult to compare the two situations. This is a question that comes to mind when I hear people talking about how inept the CIA was when dealing with Cuba. I've heard they tried to assassinate Castro many times but never succeeded. It would seem easier to influence Cuba since they're so close to the US, whereas Iran is on the other side of the world.

I'm wondering how big of a role the CIA played in the Iranian coup. Did they take advantage of a situation that was brewing, or were they the masterminds behind the whole thing?

How did Germany takeover Denmark in World War Two?

Who liberated Denmark from the Germans?

What was life like in Denmark under the Germans?