Also, although this risks breaking the "20 year rule," I was curious about what Russian actions may have influenced Chechnya's shift from a nationalist conflict in 1993 to an Islamic fundamentalist conflict in the Second Chechnya War (meaning actions that occurred DURING THE FIRST Chechen WAR (1993-1995(6)). Please stick to the rules of this subreddit, and if my question is not conducive to the rules; please point me to a subreddit more suited to this topic.

Thanks for the responses!

In most movies I see most grunts struck by an arrow quickly tumble into gurgling death or "fall over" but im curious how accurate this depiction was.

were arrow heads really so powerful they could put down a man? was it the energy from the arrow?

I feel like a single arrow to the torso would be equivalent to a single stab wound, not really an instant man killer but still dangerous.

i just watched a documentary called "islam the untold story" where the narrator questions this. I would like to hear other historians view on this matter.

And if data is available, what would be the point blank kinetic energy of the arrows? I assume there will be a discrepancy in the generated energies between English bows and Japanese bows because the release method of Kyudo is supposed to increase arrow velocity beyond what draw weight alone would suggest.

I know basic things such as the constant back and forth for government reforms however I can't find any hard evidence for either categories.

EDIT: I mean North Africa from around the beginning of Egypt to the time of Mansa Musa. Did these two cultures exchange ideas and what did African societies influence on say the Greeks, Romans, or any medieval societies?

The song is called "Hiberno-Latin Invasion" and is by a band called Slough Feg.

Here are the lyrics in particular:

And when they came They came from far To make their claim

For sake of ale Lantern and earth Expanse of sea Wisdom and mirth

They laid us low And took our wives And left their woe

Ireland before the Gauls Ursu the son of Bran Then the Latins drove our cattle across the wasted land Conchobor MacNessa reaches out from mother's womb As the night sky tells a tale of doom

The only thing I think I've sussed out is that the line "Conchobor MacNessa reaches out from mother's womb" is maybe giving an exact time frame for the event. One of the versions of his legend, according to Wikipedia, says that the druid Cathbad tells his mother (then pregnant with Conchobor) that if she waits one more day to give birth her son he'll be born on the same day as Jesus Christ, whom, according to Wikipedia again, was born some time between 7 and 2 BC.

• So did some sort of conflict happen in Ireland around this time?

• Does "Ursu, the son of Bran" refer to an actual person?

• Who might the "Latins" be? Maybe the Romans?

• Did the Romans invade what is now Ireland sometime around 7 BC? Any ideas, guys?

edit Thanks for your time, everyone. I quite like the theory that this is about the spread of writing.

If my question is too specific no more than one or two people provide a good answer. If it is not specific enough the mods delete it. Past posts are a mix.

I realize North America is a huge place, and of course I also mean outside the U.S. I am asking for a broad timeframe, I know. Answer for your specialty please.

Side question: Please don't make this just about pot, but..Native Americans seem to be getting on the pot bandwagon recently, wanting to grow it. What has their stance on marijuana been the last few hundred years?

In Dan carlin's "Thor's angels" podcast episode he quotes Will Durant saying Christianity was seen by the roman government as "a radical, perhaps communist movement." Did this refer to a sort of populist movement in the Roman times, or are Durant and Carlin using modern communism as a reference point?

People often act though Galileo's findings were marginalized and/or ignored during his time of trouble, but was it really shoves under the mat to clear the churches name or was his case just lacking solid evidence?

I am under the impression that the IJN behaved in a much more restrained and 'honorable' way towards the enemy and that the IJA has given the Imperial Japanese forces a bad name (war crimes etc.) Is this accurate?

Further:

Why were native populations in North America generally not enslaved and put to work in North America? Were Africans enslaved by Europeans, but kept in Africa to work in their native land? If so, why not do the same with North American natives and eliminate transportation costs and difficulties?

Were there incidents of European enslavement of North American natives, and if so, why not on the scale of the slaves brought from Africa? Why is it not known about as much as the slave trade from Africa?

(Sorry if the questions are cold in their analysis. Slavery is deeply abhorrent to me, but I nonetheless want to understand it.)

Also, as a sidenote- how is the figure of 5-6 million killed reached?