First, thank you for looking, and thank you more so if you answer.
I am looking to see if there is a name for the poles that Military standards are hung from? I've read a lot of what I can find for "Standard-bearer" but have not found a definitive answer.
If have a suggest on where else I might look or any other information please point me in the direction. Thanks
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Not attempting patriotism here, I am wondering sincerely if all my education may have been too biased. I just recently finished watching Band if Brothers and The Pacific so i may have some seriously skewed images perhaps?
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I simply would like a well cited conclusive response declaring which side was truly the aggressor.
Everything i have read points directly at Islam. Yet here we are today with everyone saying the crusaders were evil.
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I saw a picture [imgur] of Nazi soldiers kneeling in prayer, with the caption:
Muslim members of the Waffen-SS 13th division at prayer during their training in Germany, 1943
I've read a lot about the role (or lack thereof) of Christianity in WWII Germany. But how much religious diversity existed during this period? Is the photo accurate?
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When the Soviet union collapsed during 1991, why did all of the soviet satelitte states such as Bulgaira, Ukraine etc, go back to being their original countries? Surly there must have been some power grabbing or land grabbing? Thanks.
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If the Sumerians were the first civilization, did they realize they had had shifted the paradigm of how humans would and should live?
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Further, is there a distinction between a single or double line through the S?
I recall being taught in elementary school (during the '80s at a NYC pub school, for what it's worth) to strike two lines through the S.
What led to the prominent usage of the single line ($)?
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I find it quite painful sleeping on the ground, but perhaps that's because i'm not used to it. Did previous humans such as hunter and gatherers just sleep on the ground without any padding for their body and head?
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I'm new to Reddit, so please excuse me if this question has been asked and answered before (I didn't see it in the FAQ). My understanding is that the bulk of Roman trade between Britain and the rest of the Roman Empire was conducted overland, with trade routes heading through France and only a short trip by ship across the English Channel. But pre-modern historians often make reference to the fact that it was much cheaper and quicker to ship goods by water than by land, which would seem to suggest that the more obvious trade route, at least for heavy goods, would be to take them by ship along the west coast of France and Spain into the Mediterranean. How much Atlantic shipping was there in the Roman period? If I'm correct that there wasn't much of it, why wasn't there more?
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Seems to be a fairly popular theme across a lot of ancient China, (Three Kingdom's era is where I noticed it most), but does anyone know where it comes form and why it survived so long? Also, why did it die out?
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