The free software movement arose out of a belief that software ought to be free and available for anyone to use and modify. Did the counterculture movement and Free Love have anything to with that? Also, most software companies were established by people who were born during the baby boom and who would have come of age during the height of counterculture, the 70's. Would it be right to say that the software industry, and by extension Microsoft, Apple and the first wave of technology companies (I'm not talking about IBM and Xerox) and much of what it accomplished was influenced by counter culture?

In other words, what forms of druggings (is that a word?) were used?

As far as I can tell research on sex in the antebellum South seems to focus on sex, sexual abuse, and rape between white elite slave owners and slaves. What I'm curious about is what did sexual mores look like between elites in Southern society? Like between a married couple what kind of sexual activity was considered acceptable and what would have been degenerate or unacceptable? When you read letters between Confederate generals and their wives or Southerners in general they seem so chaste and formal. Was fellatio a known thing? Cunnilingus? Female superior? Rear entry? etc. I think I know that it was a sort of faux-aristocratic society that styled itself as a continuation of a chivalrous and knightly European heritage that would have thrived on "propriety". Do we have any ideas about sexual patterns in the elite, antebellum South?

I'm reading a book about Soviet forces in Afghanistan. In the books introductory chapter it writes:

The Soviet Army was probably the world's most operationally competent army in terms of theory, planning and execution. Historic Soviet victories were operational and Soviet war-fighting was operationally oriented (compared to Western armies which had more of a tactical orientation).

Can anyone elaborate on any of this. I am curious to know how the Soviet army compared to NATO in terms of quality and doctrine? Thanks

How were the dynamics in leper colonies? Did people took care of eachother? How did they get food? What happened with children in those places, did they get some sort of mother? When someone of the colony died how were they burried, did they get some sort of funeral or formal burrial? What was the average lifespan of someone in the colony? Did some healthy family members willingly join their wife, husband, mother, father? Maybe a stupid question, but what happend in regions were there wasn't a leper colony easily accessible? Were those people just thrown out of the city? I know there a lot of questions but answer what you can please. If I forgot something that might be interesting feel free to contribute. Oh and if you got some interesting reading material feel free to leave sugetions.

I only have cursory knowledge of the content of the works produced in the Harlem Renaissance but I think my professor is a bit off the mark (to put it mildly). Can someone provide any information they might have and any sources they might recommend? I have just begun reading the wikipedia article on it.

I'm reading a history of Venice right now and it's already mentioned several thefts of saints' bodies. So far, these are the thefts mentioned:

• Saint Mark's body was stolen from Alexandria and taken to Venice.
• Parts of Saint Nicholas's body were taken from Myra to Bari.
• The remaining parts of Saint Nicholas's body were taken from Myra to Venice.

All of that fell between 800 CE and 1200 CE.

How common was this sort of theft of saintly relics? How did people view these thefts at the time?

I have just been wondering about this. I get that we can derive the meaning of the words based on the context but how do we know that a particular symbol is pronounced in a particular way?

I thought about this because I was looking at how there is a clear similarity between modern Chinese writing and ancient Chinese writing, yet I have no idea how they pronounced the words despite understanding what they are saying.

What type of inks were used if any? How has the process changed? Where do we see the first evidence of people being tattooed? Was branding a common form of tattooing?

Their reasoning for their invasion.

Also, as a side note, any of you know great sources to shed some light on the event?

I'm thinking of online pages etc.

Thanks

Not including the time after his trial and sentencing ofcourse.

I know the easy answer is that people realized that racism is bad, but there's got to be some reason for it happening. In 70 years we went from institutional racism to America having a black president. From colonialism being accepted practice to nations apologizing for colonialism. It seems all so sudden from a historical perspective.

Did people themselves become less racist, or was it more of a generational thing? Was it in reaction to the horrors of imperialism and the Holocaust? If so, why did nations not involved (i.e. Ireland) see a change in beliefs? Has this belief change been observed in non-Western cultures? Why did the change happen so quickly?

Did they use the platform of the senate as the primary tool for disputes? Did they form factions privately before the discussion or during it? How corrupt were they? How honest were they? Would "coalition agreements" be discussed publicly?

Hello, I've been browsing this fantastic Subbreddit for months now and I always love reading the incredible detailed and fascinating answers that mods regularly produce but I was wondering (as the title suggests) as there ever been an instances of flaired mods disagreeing on an event or answer in the comment section?

From what I've seen, mods are typically very friendly to each other here but as Historian often has many points of debate and 'camps' so to speak I just thought it would be interesting to ask if these disagreements have found their way into a debate here.

Apologies if this is a silly question and I'd completely understand if this is to be removed. Regardless, thank you very much for your time :)

I am just curious if there are any documented evidence of something like this ever happened.

Why is nothing ever mentioned about them? The cradle of civilization concept is still forwarded in current journals and I've been able to find nearly no references to the Cucuteni-Trypillian culture in particular. What's the deal? What effect have these discoveries had on scholarship, because they seem to be ignored.

Were these cultures related to Europeans, or did they predate the Indo-European arrival in Europe, or were they a mix, or do we simply not know?