Even the gritty and horrible details most schoolbooks leave out. Y'know, ESPECIALLY those!

E.g. How accurate are the stories about the lives the Jews lived and their persecution.

I'm looking for a literal translation that's as close to the original text as possible. I realize that there isn't a 'Definitive Original Version' from which all translations come, and it really doesn't matter to me when it was translated or by whom. I just want to be sure I pick one up that doesn't include modern colloquialisms, simplifications, omissions, or any other theologically driven choices designed for the sake of religious edification or accessibility.

Sorry if I'm over-thinking this and there aren't as many variations as I'm assuming. I just really have no idea how any two random bibles I find in a shop will differ from each other, or even if they will at all. Thanks!

British names like jones, Adams , smith are completely different from all other cultural influences in England.

Also- does anybody know what happened to anient brittonic/Celtic surnames??

Especially twins who were able to survive until adulthood, however rare they might be.

How were they perceived by the society at the time? Was their existence said to be a curse / possible witchcraft / any other magical accusation? If not, what were the theory at the time as to the cause of such condition?

How did they live? Were they able to live like normal people in society? Would their family be willing to care for them?

Specifically I would like to know what roll they played in the development of India's nuclear program in the 1970's, The Bangladeshi war of Independence, their involvement in the creation of the LTTE in Sri Lanka, as well as the assimilation of Assam Sikkim in to India.

Is this a common historical term in Arabic? When did it start to be used? Are other terms like Sheikh, Sultan, or Caliph (I think due to religious association) not appropriate?

I can't remember if it was on here, but I've heard him described as a "proto-socialist" and I'm wondering how valid that statement is.

(After they were already in America.)

As in how did we get the distinctive "southern drawl" or "Boston" accent from the founding Americans who I presume had British, French, Spanish accents?

I've read a few times and even been told by a professor that basically white people created racism. It just came up to me again while reading Michelle Alexander's The New Jim Crow. She says:

Only in the past few centuries, owing largely to European imperialism, have the world's people been classified along racial lines.

So is it really true that before Western dominance there was racial harmony throughout the world? Or do historians, political scientists, etc mean something else that I'm not really understanding?

Edit: Spelling