Considering the Crusades were fought in many places including Syria, Palestine, and Egypt is there any evidence that some European men keeped any of these women as wives? What were the main challenges in doing this? Was there too many issues? I'm very curious.

Sorry if my english isn't the best...

My mother is Russian, but when I asked her, she basically just said that's how it always has been.

Thanks in advance!

I'm interested in apples-to-apples comparisons. So while I'm aware that, say, homosexuality may not have been as accepted in traditionally Muslim Indonesia than it was in traditionally animist Palau, was it more accepted in Indonesia than other traditionally Muslim countries?

I am doing some research on weaponry and sieges from the Middle Ages through the advent of gunpowder and into the early Modern Era. I am having trouble finding good resources with specific information about siege weaponry and how it changed during these periods as technology improved.

I've just always seen this as a stereotype almost in every mafia related media where they say they don't want to deal drugs, but end up doing so. I've seen examples of both mafia leaders refusing to deal morphine and heroin as well as those who willing got into the business. As a overall which would you say was more prominent?

I'm writing an essay for a class and looking for sources of black opposition to the abolitionist movement, however I (somewhat logically) haven't found anything. Wondering if there is any record of such a position. Thanks

EDIT: "during the late 19th century", not "Abolitionism"

Looking for views of John Adams and Alexander Hamilton on democracy and how they differ from Jefferson.

Ultimate Question: How wedded to the concept of democracy were both of these groups?

I'm a little confused on what a chastity belt is. I've heard of them though TV and movies. Were they real? How did it work when the woman had her period?

The difference is the inclusion of the article. Why isn't this included in sentences like "I'm at restaurant"?

I need help with this event. I need a simple summary of it because I don't quite understand what was going on. All I know is that Serbia wanted to be independent so they traded with other countries like France, but Austria-Hungary closed its borders which somehow prevented the trades. I don't understand, please help and thank you.

This is a key plot point of Esther. I couldn't find an answer by googling. Thanks in advance for your replies.

My impression is that they were not known or documented. Therefore, what are the leading theories about what they may have been?

I recently had dinner with a French friend in America and while we were talking he mentioned that Americans like cinnamon way more than everyone else.

This is the first I've heard of this and I started to wonder why. While I'm not sure, it seems like there would be some historical/traditional reason for it, but I have no idea.

The Escorial and the Buen Retiro are just two among the extraordinarily expensive palaces built by the Habsburgs while they were engaged in expensive wars they could not afford. Just the Escorial and its contents have been estimated as costing more than all the revenue Queen Elizabeth I had access to during her entire reign of 45 years.

Did anyone within the kingdom/s explicitly protest the Habsburgs building of palaces when state ends could surely have been better met with other expenditures? How did the Spanish crown react to these criticisms?

But in south america Europe,Africa and Asia there so much more country's

Edit:only mainland

You would imagine that some facts would leak out. As far as I know, the Russians were the first to find out about the mass destruction camps when they were reconquering Eastern Europe.

Was their agriculture more ‘successful?’

Has the relatively high human population of these areas always been the case?

Was there a time in history that the population density was more 'evenly balanced' over populated areas as a whole? (For example, at some point in history, have all populated areas had generally the same population density? If so, why has this changed?)

This may be more of a Social Science question, but I am really interested to understand how population density has changed - or not changed - over the last, say 4000 years.

I can't really understand what it is about India and China that has, for such a long time, supported such a large population compared to other parts of the inhabited world.