1 Answers 2021-07-09
When did this become a trope in Chinese popular culture? When did it appear and dominate Western understandings of China? Would the first readers of The Romance of the Three Kingdoms, for example, have thought that the warriors were using the martial arts that people might associate with them today?
1 Answers 2021-07-09
I mean, as I understand it, the U.K. wanted to relieve their trading offset - They purchased too much tea, and the Chinese purchased too little British goods. The Chinese basically said they had no need for British manufactured goods.
Did the British seek to sell rifles, ships, and cannons to the Chinese? AFAIK they had relatively few firearms in their arsenal. Why, or why not?
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What I mean is how did Champagne get exclusive rights for champagne? How did Scotland get exclusive rights for Scotch? And how did the US get exclusive rights for bourbon?
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The most famous example would probably be the Tizard Mission whose short desc on what was transferred:
The shared technology included radar (in particular the greatly improved cavity magnetron which the American historian James Phinney Baxter III later called "the most valuable cargo ever brought to our shores"), the design for the proximity VT fuse, details of Frank Whittle's jet engine and the Frisch–Peierls memorandum describing the feasibility of an atomic bomb. Though these may be considered the most significant, many other items were also transported, including designs for rockets, superchargers, gyroscopic gunsights, submarine detection devices, self-sealing fuel tanks and plastic explosives.
There was also significant contribution from Britain on the Manhattan project as they fused their own atomic project with American efforts. I also seem to remember that UK had many of their warships like HMS Queen Elizabeth in Norfolk, Virginia and that US got quite a lot of knowledge from inspecting those ships.
These things take years and often decades to properly research and develop, so this must have accelerated US advancement quite a bit. How much was it was the question I was pondering.
1 Answers 2021-07-09
I've seen that the port was leased to them by the Qing and that they allowed a railroad to be built there, but I've also read about the "Russian Invasion of Manchuria in 1900" where wikipedia states the Russians and Qing were combatants. There just seems to be a lot going on during this time and I am not sure who owns what or how the Russians got the Port. There's the Sino-Japanese war where Japan ends up with the Liaodong Peninsula and thereafter loses it but then the peninsula is "occupied" by the Russians? Was that occupation one that was allowed or was it an invasion?
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Been seeing a lot of news about the US withdrawal from Afghanistan and it got me thinking... I can't think of any conflicts in modern history where the side with the more conventional army (set up by the foreign power) survived. Has it ever worked out for these factions?
As a bit of an extension to that, I'm sure the US is well aware of this given their experiences in Korea, Vietnam and the Middle East. What are they trying to do different this time?
2 Answers 2021-07-08
Lots of East Asian martial arts heavily emphasize spiritual beliefs. Some are mostly or entirely spiritual practices at this point, like Tai Chi and Baguazhang. How did martial arts evolve from "ways to fight people" into schools of philosophy?
1 Answers 2021-07-08
Hello all. I'm about to write a paper comparing manga and western comics. I'm wondering if anyone here has an interest in this area and can recommend me some good books to take a look at. I'm interested in Japanese woodcuts and Hokusai all the way up to Attack on Titan and current manga.
Thanks in advance. Mods please delete if inappropriate.
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If they were to be victorious in the America Civil War or if the said war was never to happen, what exactly did the confederates hope will be the fate of slavery in their country outside of just it remaining legal and without major limitations immediately after their breakage from the Union?
4 Answers 2021-07-08
(My question mostly pertains to the Peloponnesian War)
I’ve been playing Assassins Creed Odyssey, and one of the game’s mechanics involves bounties being placed on the player’s head for taking decisive action against the Delian and Peloponnesian Leagues (as well as just general crime).
If the bounty gets high enough, mercenaries will pursue the player to collect the reward on their head.
There is also usually a specific official sponsoring the bounty, and it can be cleared by eliminating them.
I’m imagining that this is obviously embellished for gameplay purposes, but is there a kernel of truth to this? Are there any instances of city officials placing prices on the heads of pirates or mercenaries during this time period?
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Just curious, was going through stuff on Wikipedia and realized how little I knew about it.
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Was it due to any legitimate grievances, like discrimination?
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I was reading about Frisian freedom and I wonder how did they manage to solve public problems and I wonder if it is the only example of complex society without compulsory taxation in history.
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I know this is Wikipedia, but it seems that there are very few portraits of Korean monarchs. I wasn't able to find many more in idle Google searches. Did Korea not have a strong tradition of portraiture? Was a large collection destroyed? Are most portraits hidden in modern-day North Korea? I recognize there are many possibilities as to why there aren't many, and I'm curious if one is the clear cause.
1 Answers 2021-07-08
Hello everyone, a casual writer who. I am working on a fantasy story heavily inspired by the medieval ages, specifically the 15th century when it comes to technology.
With my research, I figured out that a village had a population that can range from 50-150 people, but how well-defended were they? Did everyone at least have a spear maybe even a somewhat standing militia or is it pretty much every able body person, grab your pitchforks and sickle to fight off the bandits?
1 Answers 2021-07-08
Much of what I said can be found in this post by Greg Lukianoff, a co-author of the book The Coddling of the American Mind.
In this article, seems that Lukianoff is using this incident - which he called "Weimar fallacy" - as evidence against the notion that restrictions on speech could prevent atrocities. To explain why this happened, Lukianoff claimed that the Nazis actually capitalized on this restriction as a means to propagate their ideas.
I find this argument somewhat suspicious. First, I don't see the term "Weimar fallacy" being used very often among academic circles, contrary to what Lukianoff suggested in this piece. Furthermore, his conclusions also go against recent studies which show that the supposed martyring of those censored by free speech laws are effectively non-existent, which nullifies his reasoning as to why the Nazis gained power despite all the restrictions.
This leads me to my questions, which I will elaborate more here. I would like to ask:
Did the Nazis actually benefit from the speech restrictions, as claimed by Lukianoff, or was their ascent aided by something else entirely?
Can this incident be reliably used as a warning against hate speech laws (which Lukianoff is apparently doing), or is the "Weimar fallacy" only an exception to the rule?
I acknowledge that the second question may not be entirely relevant to history, but I feel that a lot of people share this concern upon reading this article, so I think it is best to address it beforehand.
Thank you for answering!
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