It would seem that the larger foreign powers might have wanted the North to fail, or at least suffer heavy losses. But with slavery already abolished in most of the world, I don't imagine anyone wanted to side with the Confederacy.

Did any foreign powers provide aid, comfort, support, financing or troops to either side? Why or why not?

Apparently all of the most powerful ancient kingdoms and empires died in the same short time period, and it took hundreds of years for them to come back. Is there any concrete explanation for this?

Was it after his martyrdom, or did he adopt the name himself in life? If the former, why is he the one of all the early church martyrs to carry the title as a name? If the latter, under what circumstances did he do so?

By the mid 18th century people in America were beginning to refer to themselves as Americans.

What are some of the earliest references to Europeans in this sense?

When did it start to become common for people to refer to themselves as European?

Were there any parts of Europe that significantly resisted this sort of movement?

And for extra credit, when did bands start identifying as a group rather than by the talent of a single musician?

At around 100 AD, in any part of it, from Morocco to Arabian peninsula.

Where did it stand?

How well was it defined?

How was the defence organized?

What about trade in the region?

I read a many good years ago now that Carthaginians associated the color white with death, but this was on a video game. I've been trying to verify or see where they got this from, asking people if they had any ideas with no success.

I've read Polybius, Aubet, Lancel, and others and haven't found anything that refers to this. Any help in verifying or debunking this would be most appreciated!

This might be a bit of a scientific question, but I have always wondered at what point on the colonial timeline early American or Canadian colonists and settlers lost their British, French, [insert language of origin] accents. It intrigues me to think about if and when they began to notice the loss of these accents and if this accent change did anything to socially differentiate people who had "American" loyalties from those who were British. I know this is a bit of a difficult question to ask, but any suggestions or partial answers would be much appreciated! Thanks!

Sorry if this is not the appropriate place, but I thought it might be a good start. I've got my comprehensive exam coming up in a little over a week for my pre-modern masters, specifically focusing on late medieval and Renaissance/Reformation Europe. I've made my bibliography and have been making/going over notecards for each entry, but my brain is starting to short out a bit. Does anybody have any advice on making the studying process more fluid or less painful? I've also pulled out all of my old final papers and assignments.

I understand that 2 million people were transported. What were the logistics involved? How long did it take? Were they under regular attack by the Communists during the relocation?

I don't believe I have ever heard of a person being obsessively clean in ancient times. Did such a thing exist, or is it a modern psychosis?

I heard somewhere (probably in this subreddit), Spain had an extractive approach to colonialism in Latin America. Does this hold true for the Phillipines as well?

How difficult was it for Spain to manage its colony? Did their rule help create a Filipino identity throughout all of the islands? Did Filipino nationalism cause problems for Spain?

Lets say you we're to compare Renaissance era Italians to present day Americans. The American people feel patriotic about the free thinking, freedom loving forefathers that built their country, yet it comes with a sort of "white guilt" due to years of slavery and oppression of black people. I'm just wondering if the free thinking* Italians of the Renaissance era had any of the same conundrums.

*When i use the term "free thinking" i'm referring to the artists, peasants, inventors, ect. or more so the non-ruling class of Italy at the time.  

I do understand there is a huge difference in time when comparing the Roman Empire to 15'th~ century Italy, and the 1600's~ America ^(or ^the ^British ^colony ^at ^the ^time, ^if ^you ^insist) and today. However, considering they we're from the same 'country' per say, it would be interesting to know if they had similar views on the subject.

I apologize for the poor English, as it is not my first language.

Any insight would be greatly appreciated.

Is it because of the fact that WWI ended, the new trends and technologies during the time, or something completely different?

Not sure where to post. I'm doing a project on the Roman god Mercury and need some cool stories about him.

Today's list of bestselling books includes stuff like the Hunger Games series—novels that, to my mind, are forgettable in the long run. This got me thinking: were the books that we consider classic always critically acclaimed, or did the realization that they were worthy of "classic" status take some time?

For a project I need to represent inhabitants of some of the big Silk Road cities (Dunhuang, Kashgar, and Samarkand), set between 700 AD and 1200 AD. It's not hard to find reference images of those cities' current inhabitants, but I'd like to be as accurate as I can. I'm not talking about clothing, but rather about facial features and skin color traits normally associated with ethnicity.

Is it safe for me to assume that these populations looked more or less the same 1200 years ago?