Hello, Not sure if this is the correct place to ask this. I am writing an annotated bibliography for a class and my primary source, to support thesis, must be a text written in the Baroque period (c. 1600–1750), and I am having trouble locating one? The university library search I have access to, doesn't seem to turn anything up, how can I go about tracking one down? Any help/ suggestion appreciated.

My understanding is that documents like the Declaration of Independence and Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen essentially make a case for equality of men/citizen while actually allowing for a narrow limitation of what a citizen is (white land owning men). I wonder what the reasons for that limitation were.

My understanding is that there were in fact pushes for the abolishment of slavery which didn't end up in those documents (or the US Constitution, Bill of Rights) but were nonetheless not entirely out of left field at the time, I wonder if the same was the case for the right of every Men to vote and Women's right to vote and if those rights not ending up in those documents was result of compromise and or a believe that in fact only a certain type of men (land owning) should be considered equal to each other and not inferior to some king or so.

Did they have thinks like ancient bench presses or dumbbells?

Title.

I read that they basically ruled the German Kaiserreich as dictators. If I understand the "stab in the back" myth correctly, part of it says that the government betrayed the German military. If they were the leaders of the government, how could it have betrayed them?

I'm not trying to breach the 20-year rule. I just wanna learn more about the origins of K-pop.

I'm in the process of writing a western feature script that is set during the twilight of the "Wild West" after the Frontier was considered closed by the Census Bureau in 1890. More specifically my story is set around 1908-1910, and a large theme I'm playing with is how products of the west (outlaws, sheriffs, etc.) are living past their prime and largely without purpose.

So my question is, what did this gradual shift in authority look like? From my understanding, sheriffs served as sources of authority in these somewhat isolated towns strewn about the west for a large part of the 19th century. Who did they answer to? From my research, I am also finding out the US Army themselves were an institutional source of authority and law. How did that power get transferred over time? How did jurisdiction overlap? How did Federal agents and US Marshals fit into all of this? How did the people of the frontier feel about the federal government coming in? The sheriffs must not have been happy about it.

Apologies about the broad question and apologies about any info I'm getting wrong, but any insight would be greatly appreciated. I would also love any and all sources on these topics.

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One of the top posts on a thread about misconceptions right now is stating that French military commanders were pushing to continue fighting the Germans in a long and costly defensive war - but were told to stand down by the civilian government.

How true is this? And if so, how realistic was their plan to keep fighting? Did they have a solid strategy to repel the invading force or was it more of a hail-Mary "let's not surrender, let's fuck shit up as much as possible"?

(Not sure if this classifies as a ''What if'' question so posting here.)

So, what was the opinion of the Netherlandish in Nazi high command, were they like the British and French, inferior to the all superior Scandinavians and Germans, or were they at the top like them? What would happen to their country? Would it be a part of the thousand year Reich, or would they be their own puppet state?

Based on a discussion in cool guides, I figured I'd check in with the historians regarding hairstyles and head coverings in Ancient Greece and Rome.

The guide (with no sources) showed what we now consider to be "greek" hairstyles, based on our media/Disney.

I always thought that head coverings were more prevalent in Ancient society, and that we were perhaps misinformed in the modern era as to what dress actually looked like.

So a few starter questions:

1. Do we have any sources as to what hair styles would look like, or how they would be styled based in culture and time period?

2. Were head coverings common in the ancient world?

2a. Were there any cultural rules or actual laws that would make these required? Were ancient Romans and Greeks as free and open as we imagine they were?

3. Do we have any source as to why our modern depiction is the way that it is? Is it from a source like middle age paintings, writings, etc?

I'm sure I'll have more questions, but I'll take any information you can give. Sources are greatly appreciated, as I haven't stayed up to date since college.

Hi, all.

I only just found out about the Dzungar Khanate, the last surviving--I think--khanate, and it made me realize that I really have only the faintest idea about how the collapse of 'steppe people domain' went down. I know that the empire started to break up in the 13th century, but I don't have a great understanding of the 400+ years between that and the eventual Russian and Chinese--and Mughal?--domination of Central Asia.

Any insights would be much appreciated.

Oh! And, somewhat connected, can anyone explain the relationship between Turkic peoples and Mongolian peoples?

Thanks for the help!

I would prefer one that, somewhat like E.P. Thompson's William Morris: Romantic to Revolutionary, sympathises with rather than discredits or diminishes the writer's socialist politics.

Thanks in advance, History! ☺️

No King or president would split his country with no reason at any time but these countries still exists, I understand reasons can vary but there must be some common reason for sooo small countries to exist in the world of big sharks

The obvious answer is drawing from the popular understanding of Stonehenge being related to the equinox and of druids being way into stargazing, but is there a Wizard Zero for these motifs? If so when did they show up?

It's sometimes claimed that Homer's The Illiad and The Odyssey have no mentions of the colour blue because the word for it didn't exist at that time. Is this true? Did the Greek know what "blue" was, and did they have a name for it?