Share your favorite historical whodunnits, dramatic prosecutions, rivalries turned deadly--anything with a body at the end and at least one person at fault!

Next week: Actual Conspiracies

Posted this the other day and got no responses, still haven't found anything on my own so I'm asking again :)

Would he have understood the stock market at all? What would he have thought about the future of the country?

Not the technology itself but the ''how-to's"

Did they fly from the US homeland to Germany or did they fly them from the UK's homeland aka the "unsinkable aircraft carrier"?

I'm thinking of the Persian dynasty for example. Darius The Great ascended in 522(?) BCE - but people living in that time obviously didn't call their years "522 BCE" ("what happens when we get to 0!?").

So... How did they refer to years then? Did it change from Egyptian to Greek to Persian to Macedonian to Roman... or...? How about the far east (China)? Or how about NA?

Apologies if this is a confusing question. Basically, what I'm trying to see is who is the father of our political and martial traditions?

Would it be something to the effect of Ancient Greece > Ancient Rome > Roman Britain > Anglo-Saxon England > Norman England > Plantagenets / War of the Roses / Tudor England > United Kingdom England > American Revolution > Present-day US?

As someone who has some concern over the fitness of either major party candidate in this election, I started wondering about previous presidents. I've seen sources suggesting Lincoln suffered from depression, and that Nixon was paranoid.

Obviously, an actual diagnosis is impossible without the opinion of a qualified professional treating that particular president. Still--

With the perspective of history, are there any US Presidents that could be objectively be described as mentally unstable? If so, what kept them from destroying the United States?

State side hmmwv's are "light" and doors that can't stop a sneeze. Most doors are made of plastic or canvas if they have doors at all. The frames are thin steel. When we got involved in the middle east there was a mad rush to up armor everything.

Did the brass just expect to fight the Russian horde in rag tops? What was the plan, expendable troops?

Was the Federalist Party too weak after election of 1796 to support a candidate against a DR?

James Palmer writes in "The Bloody White Baron":

It [Urga] was a trading city, where Mongols, Chinese and Russians met to exchange goods worth over a million dollars a years. Its Chinese and Russian enclaves were well established, almost entirely seperate from the Mongolian one. Urga lay at the centre of the Tea Road, the overland route to Russia, and originally the local currency had been bricks of tea, but now most traders preferred the brass cash of the Chinese, or even Mexican dollars (a common currency at the time).

From Wikipedia I got:

The Mexican peso also served as the model for the Straits dollar (now the Singapore/Brunei Dollar), the Hong Kong dollar, the Japanese yen and the Chinese yuan.[5] The term Chinese yuan refers to the round Spanish dollars, Mexican pesos and other 8 reales silver coins which saw use in China during the 19th and 20th century. The Mexican peso was also briefly legal tender in 19th century Siam, when government mints were unable to accommodate a sudden influx of foreign traders, and was exchanged at a rate of three pesos to one Thai baht.[6]

Long tied to the lore of piracy, "pieces of eight" were manufactured in the Americas and transported in bulk back to Spain, making them a very tempting target for seagoing pirates. The Manila galleons transported Mexican silver to Manila in the Spanish Philippines, where it would be exchanged for Philippine and Chinese goods, since silver was the only foreign commodity China would accept. In Oriental trade, Spanish dollars were often stamped with Chinese characters known as "chop marks" which indicated that particular coin had been assayed by a well-known merchant and determined to be genuine. The specifications of the Spanish dollar became a standard for trade in the Far East, with later Western powers issuing trade dollars, and colonial currencies such as the Hong Kong dollar, to the same specifications.

The first Chinese yuan coins had the same specification as a Spanish dollar, leading to a continuing equivalence in some respects between the names "yuan" and "dollar" in the Chinese language.

In 1889, the Yuan was equated at par with the Mexican peso, a silver coin deriving from the Spanish dollar which circulated widely in South East Asia since the 17th century due to Spanish presence in the region, namely Philippines and Guam. It was subdivided into 1000 cash (Chinese: 文; pinyin: wén), 100 cents or fen (Chinese: 分; pinyin: fēn), and 10 jiao (Chinese: 角; pinyin: jiǎo, cf. dime). It replaced copper cash and various silver ingots called sycees. The sycees were denominated in tael. The yuan was valued at 0.72 tael, (or 7 mace and 2 candareens).[4]

Banknotes were issued in yuan denominations from the 1890s by several local and private banks, along with the Imperial Bank of China and the "Hu Pu Bank" (later the "Ta-Ch'ing Government Bank"), established by the Imperial government. During the Imperial period, banknotes were issued in denominations of 1, 2 and 5 jiao, 1, 2, 5, 10, 50 and 100 yuan, although notes below 1 yuan were uncommon.

Now, I understand that currency parity is extremely convenient when trading and I know that demand for Chinese goods was so great that it ultimately led to the opium wars. Apparently the practice of the Manila galleons lasted between 1565 and 1815 so by 1913 they would have had plenty of time to spread to Urga but it seems very weird to me that Imperial authorities would tolerate the use of foreign currency (especially when traders could easily be reimbursed because of the parity) at a time when China is trading on China's terms and the century of humiliation is still off by a bit. Why wouldn't they just remint coins instead of letting foreign currencies (with foreign rulers on them) circulate freely or was it a complete non-issue to them and I am simply looking at the history of China through the narrow 19th century lense?

I have found conflicting evidence to this claim, I know that Aranha was very active and fought to pass the resolution, but as far as casting the tie-breaking vote, I found a lot of controversial sources to this popular anecdote here in Brazil.

I'm doing coursework and I need some book recommendations for information and sources.

I was reminded of this by former president and current presidential candidate Sarkozy claiming that when a person became French then their ancestry (metaphorically) became the Gauls and Vercingetorix.

I seem to remember this idealized pre-Roman Gaul only became part of the national myth during the third republic. Wikipedia mentions Ernest Lavisse who popularized the phrase with his history schoolbooks in 1887, but doesn't speak about any earlier mention of Gaul ancestry in the national ethos.

Also, how true is this claim anyway? Obviously Gauls lived in a large part of what is now Modern-day France in the antiquity, so one would expect a lot of genetic ancestry, but on a cultural level is there any significant thing that we can say was really influenced by pre-Roman Gaul?