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I've heard people say that prior to the rise of the emperors Rome was a democratic society. How democratic was it really? How many people actually voted? Was it commoners or just the aristocracy? Were everyone's votes worth the same?

I obviously don't mean 'right' from an ethical perspective. Rather, what factors led to Britain dominating the world over other fantastically wealthy and large empires of the time like France and Japan?

After yesterday's protest at the Donald Trump rally in Chicago, two dominant narratives seemed to emerge from Trump supporters - the idea that these protestors were "anti-free speech" and the notion that this largely black and brown crowd were "violent thugs."

My question is centered around on negative responses to past protests. When and where were arguments like these first employed and how have they mutated over time? What other sorts of arguments have been used against protestors and how have these changed?

In particular, I'm most interested in responses to labor movements and to the many protests of the 1960s: Civil Rights, Black Power, Vietnam, and the Stonewall Riots.

I'm doing an essay on why so few of the Roman emperors of the third and fourth centuries died natural deaths. Would anyone be able to point me towards some primary sources from this period? Any recommendations for secondary sources would be welcome too.

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This has been an area that has interested me for a long time but I never seem to be able to access that "higher level" knowledge. One example being that most of the information I find is often times inaccurate or just simply wrong. This subreddit is called ask HISTORIANS so I assume most of you guys know what you're talking about. Thanks in advance!

EDIT: Any books on Medieval Military/War would be preferred but the question isn't exclusive to them. Any books on the era are appreciated. Also, the question isn't limited to Europe either, any region's Medieval histories are appreciated as well.

Additionally, how long would it be before Scottish/English soldiers or sailors would serve alongside each other, and were there any notable tensions?

Was it purely because Canada was largely French speaking at that time? Did the Quebecois not have any sort of independence movement?

I have a fairly loose and eclectic knowledge of the history of mental health including some study of 19th & 20th century medical development and (oddly, I know) quite a lot of knowledge relating to classical Chinese medical history. However, quite interested to learn about what different societies across different periods considered 'mental' health to be and whether disorders such as PTSD and depression were recognised in any sense in pre-Modern periods.

Thanks :)

So after extensive and mind numbing research I can't answer my questions without bringing in the big guns.

How accurate is leather armour? Was it ever used in western Europe around the 15th century? And finally how accurate are the brigandines with 4inch by 4inch plating?

EDIT: thankyou all for the awesome replies! Nothing at all what I wanted to hear but that still bought me to a conclusion, you've definitely got another fan in me.

So I've been looking at the Schlieffen Plan of WWI, and that may have meant France ceding to Germany if it the latter was successful. So why didn't this happen 40 years earlier when Prussia did overtake Paris instead of annexing the relatively small territory of Alsace-Lorraine?

I can find vague numbers for modern-day European states in the Middle Ages, but I have no idea where to look for African states. Were the population numbers much lower, higher, or about the same? I'd like to know roughly exact numbers (to the nearest half million or whatever) but if no-one knows, a rough idea is fine. I don't know how accurate historians' knowledge of east African demographics before the modern period is.

Did the 22 trump cards signify a particular societal class like the four suits we commonly use in playing cards today?

They weren't landlocked and could use a lot of ports.