Especially since until the time of the Shogunate, Kyoto had been where the Emperor lived for hundreds of years. The Edo plain was just marshland. Yet over 400 years, the Kanto dialect has become the formal/standard Japanese dialect, associated with government officials, the Imperial Family and the NHK; while Kansai-ben has been associated loud and boisterous characters, or owarai (comedy duos). How did such a dramatic change happen?

For instance, the phrase "are you serious...?/are you kidding me...?" can be translated into standard Japanese (i.e. the Kanto dialect) as the formal and fussy 真剣ですか. But in Kansai-ben, it's ほんまかいな.

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I was just wondering how he would have been punished or treated following the hypothetical capture of someone like Erwin Rommel by American or British Forces. I know he is often viewed in a more positive light since he didn't commit war crimes on the scales of the SS. I don't know of any precedents that had been set for high-profile Nazi generals being captured. Are there any cases of this happening to other generals?

I recently heard that even their kids were sent to school with guns.

One of my favorite stories in this regard concerns a merchant who visited the realm of Vlad III Draclu (Vlad the Impaler), which while later than the time period that I'm asking out, is I think pretty illustrative.

The story goes that a merchant asked Count Vlad if he could stay in town overnight while he was passing though. Count Vlad agreed, and told the merchant to leave his stuff out in the open in the middle of the town square, insisting that it would be totally safe. When the merchant returned the next morning to reclaim his stuff, not only had nothing been stolen but he even found some extra money with his stuff. When he saw Count Vlad the next morning, the merchant told him everything, including about the extra money. Count Vlad laughed and said something along the lines of "Good thing you told me about the extra money or you'd be a thief!"

Let me clarify. In 1066 William the conquerer, well, conquered England and Norman nobles replaced the Saxon nobles ruling the country. When did the English peasants, Europe at large, and the nobles themselves stop thinking of themselves as as occupying foreigners but rather homegrown rulers? Did it take only a single generation? The Hundred Years' War?

Why were the Normans able to successfully integrate? As a counter example, the Mongolian ming dynasty ruled China for centuries and adopted many Chinese customs, but was still seen as foreign and thrown out. Why did the same not happen in Britain?

In its most basic sense, a place where prepared food can be exchanged for currency or some other goods. Do we have any records of the earliest establishment to fit this description?

I know they were very similar technology wise.

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I realize that we know very little about the actual lives of the four evangelists of the new testament.

But what were the big stories of their time, in the regions they likely lived in?

Are there any (educated) guesses, that can be made off of their style of writing?

Was there fighting? Who were the forces fighting? What were their allegiances? What was the general outcome in the area?

Having a passing understanding of Herodotus, Aristotle, and Cicero, it always struck me as odd that for peoples that seem to be so concerned with their rights, freedoms and the nature of man, no one in the Roman or Greek worlds seems to have come up with a philosophical opposition to slavery. Aristotle even wrote a justification for slavery in The Politics in the terms of it being a positive good for "barbarians", to whom he presumably thought the Greeks were doing a big favour by enslaving.

However, recently I've been reading Seneca's Letters to Lucilius, and in Letter XLVII he spends a long time expressing the equality between master and slave, how both are human beings and both are worthy of respect, couching the argument in Stoic philosophy. While he doesn't outright say "slavery is evil", this seemed to me to be a rather radical view for the Classical world. How common were sentiments like this and did anyone take it to the point of opposing slavery utterly?

Puritanism seems to have a far more conservative and private view of sex. Also a more punishable laws for sex outside marriage, while other places in Europe it was just some what the opposite why is this?

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When were they established and closed down? How many people went to them? Where were they exactly?

If even Russia dropped the name for their own city why has France persisted in honouring somebody who is quite a genocidal mass murderer? Has there been any movements to change it?

Canada was under French rule for a long period time, until it was ceded to Britain after the French defeat in the Seven Years War. But, France later beat Britain in the American Revolution; so why didn't they force the British to return Canada to them?

Since male populations in particular were devastated in some nations, I figured that returning single men, or even just those who never went, would be massively outnumbered by women their age. Did this make it easier for them to find women? On the same note, were women of a certain age more likely to be spinsters?

Where can I find the autobiography of Ibn Khaldun in English or Spanish? I searched but I only found it in arab, which I cannot read! thanks!