Some expanding on the questions: For example in game Europa Universalis IV, by playing specific nations and doing specific things you can form another nation. Eg. The game tells you "Be Prussia, conquer these provinces" click a button and bam you are Germany.

But in real life stuff like that isn't that simple. How did the rulers know what they needed to "form" a country? What determinated it? How did they tell everyone else that their nation is now something else?

This probably doesn't fit this sub very well, but the mapping of Israel in modern times began with him, and his descriptions match the P.E.F. (Palestinian Exploration Fund); a project to map Israel ehich approximately reached a precision of 1:50000 cm. This mapping was released after his journies were written, and all of this information I have only heard and not read, and unfortunetaly I couldn't find him on the internet.

I want more information on him, if you're familiar with what I'm writting here, please tell me where can I read more of this entire journy, and perhaps even, I'd be interested on the mapping of Israel itself. That is, I haven't gone to ask for the books yet, I only now heard of this man in a trip for extensive material before I guide my youth group to the same places Victor was.

Thanks in advance, though I'll probably won't get answers here.

I'm currently 17 years old and I'm looking to study War studies next year, but I can't find out if I can do that from the first year on or if I have to study history in general first? I am based in Belgium but my parents said they were OK with me studying anywhere in Europe.

Thanks in advance!

I read that Ireland and Scotland are not Celtic, that no one in either countries ever called themselves Celtic before the 18th century, but that they had interactions with Celtic people. A lot of historians even claim that "Celtic" shouldn't be used outside of referring to the language family because it creates confusion, but when I read Irish and Scottish history they're often classified under "Celtic Myths" and such.

I was wondering perhaps the problem historians had with "Celts" was one to do with race rather than culture, and that Ireland and Scotland were indeed Celtic but the idea of "Celtic Blood" did not exist. I'm very curious about this entire issue. I know that the "Celts" did exist at some point, but I cannot comprehend the distinction being made when referring to Ireland and Scotland and why there's such a mess.

Albeit I believe most of them got the sentence they deserved, was the trial valid in legal sense?

I ask this because I can't imagine there was a lot of work in that sector between the wars.

I'm curious to know what is the extent of "Western" Religion in this age.

I'm still on a roll with Rome, so I was wondering about how this worked in the centuries before Caracalla declared all free-born residents of the Empire to be citizens.

I do know a little about how it specifically worked in Egypt. If one parent was a Roman citizen and the other was a native, Greek, or Jewish Egyptian, then the child was born into the non-citizen parent's caste. But did this apply in other provinces too?

This question is motivated by the fact that I am reading a portion of Gibbon's Decline and Fall, and I read up a bit on Gibbon too. However, I'm looking for general answers, not just in relation to this one work/author.

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Just a shower thought I had today

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Any reading materials would be appreciated :D

I think I can add Italian and Spanish to the French group and British and Scandinavian to the German group. No offense intended, but the former are usually regarded as sophisticated cuisine while the latter usually aren't. This seems rather strange to me because Germany shares border with France and Italy is close enough to them, and England was once conquered and ruled by a Frenchman.

So, what factors contributed to these groups developing this differently? Former Roman borders? Access to the Mediterranean? Different climates? Or something more recent?

So far, all I've found on the Death of Harald Hadrada from a quick Google search was that he died in the Battle of Stamford Bridge, No shit. The only actual explanation of how he died that I could find was that one page (the Civilization wiki, I know it's not the most reliable of sources but I couldn't find any better) that said he was killed by an arrow to the throat, but that can't be true as Harold Godwinson's army had no archers, at least not in the battle of Hastings.

Any answers would be great appreciated.

thanks.

I mean really. The two modern standards of Norwegian were adopted in the 20th century.

In Spain home of the Spanish inquisition, 5 days belong to other religions. In English 4. I thought the Catholic church was very aggressive at stomping out pagan influence.

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