The Wikipedia page mentions the campaign in Russia, but doesn't provide much details regarding what he did exactly that made him that much braver than other napoleonic commanders.

I have heard from modern hikers that alkaline water in the desert should be avoided, but I’ve been unable to find anything about American pioneers drinking alkaline water. Thanks!

Hi there. Recently, I was having a conversation with my brother who's studying constitutional law. We were wondering why Louisiana which was acquired from France in 1804 as a territory kept its Napoleonic code whereas the states acquired after the Mexican cession have a full common law code like the other states. I would imagine that like in the former Mexica territories civil law was practiced as well.

So why was Louisiana allowed to keep its civil law system whereas other territories that also practiced civil law started using common law after their incorporation. Was Louisiana more settled than the west making it more difficult to replace a law system?

Edit: Mexico instead of Louisiana.

Lafayette, the general who fought in the American Revolution, had a full name of "Marie-Joseph Paul Yves Roch Gilbert du Motier, Marquis de Lafayette." The Duke of Nemours, son of King Louis-Philippe, was "Louis Charles Philippe Raphaël d'Orléans". Why are their names so long?

Although Germany did lose a sizable amount of territory, I don't understand why Germany was not partitioned into smaller German states akin to reunification. Austria was split into smaller states, but Germany was just given reparations, why weren't both partitioned, or both given reparations?

Why wasn't the maiden voyage of the Bismarck delayed till ships like the Scharnhorst or Gneisenau were repaired?

I ask because of the major role Afonso I had in the shaping of Portuguese identity; he's always portrayed as Portuguese, and everyone seems to assume he spoke Galaico-Portuguese as a native. I imagine it's possible there aren't any contemporary sources discussing this, but maybe you'll surprise me.

I know there was a similar post like this made about 5 years ago, but that post was regarding 14th century and onwards. Because apparently the practise of knights fighting afoot started in 14th century, but I want to know if 13th century English knights fought on foot too. Like in Battle of Lewes, Battle of Evisham, Battle of Falkirk etc. Because in the illustrations/manuscripts of all knight battles (including 14th century and onwards) I always see the knights on horseback. Obviously if they got knocked-off their horse or if their horse was slain they would have to fight afoot, but did 13th century English knights fight afoot commonly/occasionally? Or only when they had to? And if so, how often did they get knocked off their horses?

I know that in 20s / early 30s Berlin there were transgender and gender non-conforming people, and it would stand to reason that they would have been persecuted by the Nazis.

However, in my research I've not found any evidence of them being persecuted. I know many victims of the Holocaust weren't able to be placed into certain categories so were deemed "asocial" which is how I would guess as to the lack of evidence.

As a transgender person this question has always fascinated me, and not being able to find any evidence has really bothered me.

I can’t think of any other examples of colonies not clearly geographicaly separated that would have been made in to distinct colonies the way the first US states were. Why whas it done this way?