Long version:

In late 1796, with the blessing of the rebel United Irishmen, the First French Republic launched a failed invasion of Ireland (Expédition d'Irlande), under General Hoche.

The Irish strategy was to remove the British from Ireland and declare a Republic, with the aid of the French. The French sought to deal an ideological blow against the British, and establish a potential base for an invasion of Britain.

It seemed like a mutually beneficial strategy at the time, and I can see how the United Irishmen's Fitzgerald, O'Connor, and Wolfe Tone were encouraged by the promise of French military aid, but I have often wondered whether it would have simply been a case of "out of the frying pan and into the fire". By which I mean, would Ireland have simply changed hands from what was essentially a British colony to a French colony, leaving the population in a similar position to its original predicament.

In other words, how detailed was the agreement between the Irish and the French; was it perhaps shrouded in a fog of mutual idealism?Is there any evidence that the French had plans other than those outlined to the Irish?

I'm re-reading Charles C. Mann's 1493, and he mentions the arrival of a group of "Dutch" (a mix of Dutch, Portuguese, Spanish, and Malays) pirates in Fujian in 1547, where they set up a base on Wu Island. I can't seem to find any other references to this event on the internet, and it is kind of treated as representative of larger trends of the period.

The date seems very early to me for such an unknown event. When did European travels to the orient by sail like this become so commonplace that they wouldn't be noteworthy to put in the history books? As far as I'm aware, Europeans had just discovered Japan at this point, and travel to China was still anything but a common occurrence. Have I wrongly conceptualized the existing trade and contact links of this period?

edit: I realize "the Orient" can mean something different to each person. What I'm really talking about here is the Far East (eg., China, Japan, Korea, Indochina, The Philippines, Formosa, etc.).

How were people with epilepsy treated in 15th century Europe? Did society consider them to be pariahs or did they understand that their seizures came from a medical condition?

EDIT-I meant 15th century-sorry for bad topic title!

I'm trying to determine the difference between a stratocracy, military dictatorship, and if Nazi Germany was more of the former than the latter.

I've listened to a few of Dan Carlin's, which I love, but most of them are paid. Any good free ones out there?

I love the ones you guys do here, but I need more!

We have all heard about German, French, Italian, etc. resistance groups forming after the coming of Facism and/or invasions of their countries. However, I've never heard about any real resistance in Japan, China or Korea. It's easy to imagine there were groups in China and Korea, but were there any such groups in Japan?

By looking at the tablets in which it was inscribed, how are we able to read what the melody sounded like?

If the Vikings made it to North America and interacted with the natives, why did't they spread disease before Columbus?

If so were there any disagreements between families?

I was thinking maybe Istanbul/Constantinople or Rome... just curious

Did cities grow organically, or was there some sort of master plan? Or maybe somewhere in between?

From what I've read in various places in this sub, apart from the famed Battle of Moscow, the USSR launched few winter offensives in WWII. That surprises me given all the problems that the Germans had in winter, such as tanks as trucks that wouldn't start, the problem of ice in the overlapping bogie wheels of German tanks, artillery pieces that only functioned after hardened grease and so forth had been chipped away, and inferior German uniforms (even after they received their winter gear). It seems like that would give the Red Army a major advantage in winter, so why didn't they launch more winter offensives?

I've done a small amount of research into it, and my impression is that it was a relatively quiet, very gradual process that occurred over several centuries. However I find it a little difficult to get a succinct, coherent rundown of the events that lead from an absolute monarchy to the system we know today. So what were the major landmarks and/or driving events that led the monarchy to relinquish power?

In other words, to what extent was the American Revolution a "brother-against-brother" civil war?

I'm curious along the lines of refusing a military order or something like that. Do we have any such sources in cuneiform, hieroglyphics, phoenician, ancient chinese, or such?

I am doing an assignment for History. I have to do an old newspaper assignment where i am the editor. My dad said to stick to the western theme so now I'm wondering how many men did Wyatt Earp kill? Please let me know.

I haven't really found anything about this online. Was it only Aryans that were allowed to migrate to Nazi Germany or were the borders shut completely?

Working on an assignment, would be interesting to see what people have found.