I've heard that Ogedei had a real drinking problem and died in a drinking contest. What was his drink of choice? How was it made and who made it. I can't really picture nomads brewing stuff, so did they take it from the settled people they conquered?

Also the story about how he was limited to a single cup a day: did he really just make a bigger cup? How big was it?

Do we know today the sword he used? If not. What type of sword would he have used. Thanks for the help:)

Was there concern that it would upset the political balance in Parliament, comparable to Republican concerns about admitting Puerto Rico as a state? Were they afraid it would be a bad precedent?

If there is a book older than the Bible please tell.

I have heard this told both ways multiple times and can't really find any clear answers. Of course this is in no means meant to question that what the Nazis did was wrong.

Perhaps it would be interesting to compare the Nazi practices to those in other countries at the time.

In Ancient and medieval times It seems they had all the materials to make a basic bicycle (metal, chains, wood) except perhaps rubber but I think wooden or even leather could still make a decent replacement.

Why didnt they have "bicycles" in those time periods and who came up and used the first bicycles?

Resources (books, websites, anything) about global relationships in the 17th century, especially between Europe and Asia, and obviously within the two. Resources on major powerhouses of the age would also be nice. If a specific range helps, 1650-1660 is especially important to me. If this could be kept to under 10 books and unlimited online resources, that would be exceptional. As always, thanks for any and all well-meant answers.

Also, this is an x-post from AskHistory.

From what I understand England had, in the past, a pretty dodgy history with its Kings and Queens. Especially during the English Civil War. So why would they care about the mainland European concerns when they were safe and sound as an island? And when a King got executed in the country of their age old enemy who helped facilitate the loss of their American colonies?

As a neutral country, did they retain any trading relationship with Germany (I'm assuming not) or did they simply just grow all of their own food during this period? I've read previous threads about rationing, but still haven't come across any idea on where they got their supplies or how they were able to survive 6 years of isolation. Thanks!

Anything on context is more than welcome, immediate and long term effects would be of great help

We know that there were MANY of them but what made Aushwitz the worst one to be at/go to?

In purely military terms one wonders why the USA and the Allies did not press their huge advantage with possession of nuclear warheads (when they had no risk of MAD).

Is there a reason why an enduring hegemony across Europe, Russia and Asia before the Soviets developed their deterrent?

When the American Revolution was covered in High School and College, there seemed to be a bit of a narrative that King George was mad (or at least unreasonable) and that this was a factor in the escalation into what became the American Revolution. So, was he truly mad? Could a more level-headed king have resolved the situation peaceably?

OK so the central idea behind magic is, as far as I know, that your mind can change reality directly. Stuff like incantantions are largely about helping your mind focus right. And one philosophical way this can be explained is to say the whole of reality is a projection of our minds, this is why with enough focus the projection, and thus reality can be changed.

Now in Asia certain schools of Buddhism, specifically, the Tibetan Yogacara, or yoga-practicioner school, which is also called the Cittamatra, mind-only school teaches this.

But this would be difficult to believe for a 16th century Christian because without a fixed objective reality, you don't have much use for a creator god, and that would be a nice way to get your ass roasted. Remember, it was kinda hard for Berkeley to explain exactly what role god plays in his system.

There is a book called The Kybalion which claims to convey the principles of Hermetic magic, and it begins with an "all is mind" principle, but apparently it is more based on 19th century philosophical ideas (probably influenced by Asian ideas of the above kind, New Thought, Theosophers, that kind of stuff) rather than actual 16th century stuff.

My question would be, would it be possible for a 16th century or say 13th century European Christian magic practitioner, Kabbalist, alchemist, what have you, to believe "all is mind", and if not, then what was the basis of John Dee's system by what principle did he think magic can actually work?