The Mediterranean, in part, allowed civilizations like Ancient Greece, Egypt, and Rome to flourish by providing fertile land and readily accessible trade routes. Why do we not see a similar effect along the shores of the Black and Caspian Seas?

I have read the investigation, but any other interesting primary sources of the incident?

Aloha,

Will someone please explain to me why Hawai'i, home Dr. Sun Yat-sen, wasn't claimed by China? There were more Chinese there than any other ethnic group at one point in time.

I read the thread on why Australia wasn't given much notice by China (there were more efficiently located resource to pursue). But I would appreciate if some scholarly person would elaborate specifically on Hawai'i.

Mahalo

Was the majority of the population homosexual for social reasons? If so, was it mainly just Athens?

More specifically, how much do we know about the first people to realize the sun made periodic motions in the sky? Who was the first to measure the period of the solar cycle?

I'm looking for articles and books to read about knighthood, honor, and chivalry in and around the Holy Roman Empire during the late 1400s and early 1500s. I've been looking around and I am woefully inept at finding what I'm searching for. I'd prefer to read about this topic in English, as my German is shit, but I will gladly take short writings like articles in German (cuz I can manage that). If you guys could point me in the right direction I'd appreciate it. So far databases like JSTOR have not led me to anything good.

Like would a father come home to find his adolescent sons had drawn a cock on the wall next to the painting of a deer? Have we ever found rude cave paintings?

So as I understand it, the Mycenaean civilization went away sometime around 1200-1100 B.C.E. After that we know nothing about what really happened in ancient Greece until around 900 B.C.E. where we have the Dorians fully established in western Greece and the Peloponnese. At this point we would have Sparta and others fully established and the Spartan Helot/Perioikoi system fully in place.

During this dark period we would see a transition from the proto-Greek Linear A/B script, to something recognizable as Doric/Attic/Ionian Greek.

During this time we would also see a decline (as I would call it but most historians would hesitate to call it more than a transition) from Mycenaean/Minoan art to the Geometric Period, skipping over the proto-geometric period of Greek art.

Does this sound correct or do I have something confused?

There were many cities in the League, but only Hamburg is still a separate political entity.

First off, I understand that the time frame is incredibly generic. I'm talking about anywhere between the Archaic period on through to the Classical.

I've heard a lot about the cultural obsession the Greeks had with competition and drive for glory (ex. the Olympics, Achilles' being a fucking dick 24/7 and being respected for it), but I also read that Greek society, however hierarchy, used pretty fairly egalitarian fighting styles like a phalanx. I think it's egalitarian because there's no troops fighting in some gross trench while some other guy rides around on horseback. Everyone shares a similar role and is expected to work together for collective safety.

How would a glory-hungry Greek soldier reconcile his competitive streak with being ordered to walk closely beside every other soldier?

If a kid gets his leg broken at soccer practice, it's kind of a "no harm, no foul" sort of thing. They go, get the leg set, get a cast, boom, back in business.

When did this happen? I imagine that a few blacksmiths got their arms broken. Would that end their career?

I was just reading a sci-fi story where some alien mentioned that on his planet someone came up with (what we call) Pythagoras Theorem all on their own. after reading that it occurred to me that considering how elemental math is there's no reason I can see why different earthly cultures couldn’t have arrive at the same mathematical proofs independent of each other?

And if so, is it possible they did it on purpose to get their hands on cheap gold only to use it when people realized alchemy wasn't possible?

I'm having a hard time researching about this war, and was hoping that you guys would be able to help me out.

Do you guys recommend any books about this? I would like to read more about what happened to the Napoleonic aristocracy after he fell.

The whole ideology of the House of Saud seems to be based around Wahhabi islam, and since the end of the Ottoman Empire the caliphate hasn't been claimed for decades. Why did they never use the opportunity to promote their version of islam by proclaiming themselves caliphs? Did they ever try and fail? Or does it somehow not fit into their agenda?

In the same vein, what did they use as makeup and how did it transition into modern makeup?

All popes before him and most directly after were canonized.