For example, when Near Eastern civilizations in the Bronze Age are said to have encountered bedouins in the desert.

Would they be of various origins, or were most Berber/Aramaic?

Did some other people like the Chinese or the Majapahits or someone else make contact with the Aborigines first?

This has always confused me why we don't use such technologies at our disposal to fight without men

Is there any images out there of how women wore these out in public? Basically I'm wondering if women wearing chopines would have dresses long enough to cover the entire chopine or if they would stop at the regular length to just cover the shoe.

And while I have your attention? Were those things even comfortable enough to stand or walk in for any period of time?

So I've been reading about the danish vikings and their interaction with the different people and cultures in western Europe, especially the merovingian and karolingian dynasties. I came across the Salian Franks and understood, that they were assimilated into being Franks at some time around the 7th century, but that the merovingian dynasties had some kind of Salian ancestry.

This made my think of whether there were any connection between the merovingian (Salian) and the Salian dynasty which ruled what we now know as Germany from the year 1000. If yes, was it a 'real' dynastical connection or was it some kind of hoax to make legitimate claims for the crown?

also how long did their service extend, did they fly all the way to Berlin?

I'm not certain conspiracy theorists had the platform they have these days with the internet and all, but I'm sure they've always existed. What were the popular methods of raising these questions? Who were the people questioning the presented propaganda? Either German, US, or wherever, who was the. Chicken Little that has been proven right?

Thanks in advance

... and how truly constitutional was any interference the government exercised? I'm curious for details on the arrests of anarchist bombers, the work of the Overman Committee, and similar conflicts between the state and working classes. Thanks!

I've been a fan of the Sherlock Homes series for most of my life and the stories continually reference a fictional London club called the 'Diogenes Club'. London clubs are also mentioned extensively in 'The Long Firm', which is set in the 1960's. I would be interested to know the answers to the following questions.

1. What exactly were these clubs ?

2. How did one join ?

3. What were the costs of membership ?

4. Do many of these clubs still exist ?

5. Were there clubs for all social classes at this point in history or just the wealthy ?

6. Was this culture unique to London or did other major European cities have gentleman's clubs ?

Dear Historians,

My sister recently said the following:

The Mongolian Empire was the first empire to allow its people to believe in whatever religion they wanted, so long as they obeyed the laws of the land.

I'm not sure where she got her information, but I could have sworn that back in Jr. College when I took World History, the professor tought us that the Persian Empire was the first empire to utilize such a method over its subjects.

I'm not sure which of us is true, or perhaps we're both wrong. Could someone help? This has been nawging at the back of my mind.

For example:

• Did people still have to pay their mortgages?
• Did people go out for coffee/beers etc. on a regular basis?
• People who had jobs not relevant to the war effort (accountants, chimney sweeps, etc.); did they still work as usual?

Any other interesting items like that.

I did some searching and am really lost. Question arose from idle curiosity (found a pistol casing in the back yard)

Starting with Gaius Julius Caesar, few of the initial leaders of the Roman empire passed their empire down to some offspring. Why did so few Roman leaders have sons, when they often had a number of wives and concubines?

My friend and I were arguing about the legitimacy of using the word 'Briton' to refer to modern day British people. He says that all the native Britons either died in the Anglo-Saxon and Norman invasions or were pushed back to what is now Wales, Cornwall and Brittany. I am pretty sure he's wrong, but I don't have any evidence to back myself up with.

So my questions are:

• What happened to the Native Britons when the Anglo-Saxon's and Normans invaded?
• Do modern day British people (esp. Englishmen) have any Briton blood in them, outside of breeding with people from Cornwall, Wales or Brittany.
• When did the term Briton first come to use and who did it refer to?

Thanks for taking the time to read this, and I hope for some good responses so I can educate both myself and my friend better. :P

The Mongol empire apparently lasted until 1368. What happened at this point and after this? Did amyone take any kind of revenge on them considering the magnitude of the suffering they inflicted on peoples across the world?