How was the Liberal Democratic Party of Japan able to keep itself in power for over three decades (1955-1993)?

How much did moneyed politics or US assistance such as possibly from the CIA play a hand in this? Or was their electoral success over three decades in power due to their successful handling of the Japanese economy and the post-war rebuilding?

/u/DryCleaningBuffalo and I have a Geology Professor who's said this in multiple classes, and we can't find any information about this online besides the fact that Kutna Hora had silver mines and was involved in the 30 Years War. We were both skeptical about this so I'm posting this here. Thank You.

The claim is made by Slavoj Zizek in his book In Defense of Lost Causes:

The “pursuit of happiness” is such a key element of the “American (ideological) dream” that one tends to forget the contingent origin of this phrase: “We holds these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness.” Where did the somewhat awkward “pursuit of happiness” come from in this famous opening passage of the US Declaration of Independence? The origin of it is John Locke, who claimed that all men had the natural rights of life, liberty, and property— the latter was replaced by “the pursuit of happiness” during negotiations of the drafting of the Declaration, as a way to negate the black slaves’ right to property.”

If it is true, what parties were involved in making this change? When were these negotiations? Was it contentious or quickly agreed upon?

If it is not true, how did the rumor begin?

While reading Bernard Fall's "Street Without Joy" I came upon an extremely brief mention of a german born man named Ho Chi Long. Fall only really mentions him once in the book but states that he was a german deserter who traveled to Vietnam and became Ho Chi Minh's adopted son.

Now, I cannot for the life of me find anything about this man or his life. Maybe the sources only exist in French or Vietnamese but I would to hear more about him and whether or not he really existed.

I'm a current undergraduate history major at a mid-sized liberal arts college. For my environmental history class, we're supposed to produce a research paper. I'd ideally like to examine how urbanization impacted the environment within the Southern United States, specifically Birmingham, New Orleans, and Nashville.

Is this a worthy paper topic to pursue?

Someone told me that building on credit, as in taking out a loan for the purpose of making something and using the return on that investment to pay the loan was a medieval investment and didn't exist in the roman world. Is that true at all? Did the Romans and Greeks have no banks?

In the 20th century Europe, as we all know, were three major totalitarian dictators; Joseph Stalin, communist, also Adolf Hitler and Benito Mussolini who were facist. In history classes I am mostly taught about Hitler and Stalin due to the magnitude of what they did and what it was like to live in Nazi Germany and Soviet Russia. Things like, sparking the Second World War, gulags and concentration camps and what it was like to live in their respective countries and their politcal stances.

A bit of a shower thought, but I found it curious that these two big afterlife celebrations from different cultures happen to fall on the same date. I'm aware of Halloween's Celtic origins, and Day of the Dead is Mexican, both holiday's are seemingly ancient, strange to think they evolved alongside each other in the late October/early November period and one didn't influence the other?

The imaginative side of me likes the spooky side of this coincidence, but surely there's historical reasoning?

Hello AskHistorians, this is my first post here. I've tried doing a search and looking at the FAQ, so I hope my question is not redundant or foolish.

I've been reading Ron Chernow's 'Alexander Hamilton' and the thing that sticks out to me most is how ... pig-headed Thomas Jefferson is.

From what I understand, Jefferson thought that slavery was wrong but didn't take any steps to abolish or curb his own use of it; he went against Washington's express wishes for peace in the cabinet to tear down its members; his views on the French Revolution are atrocious in hindsight, despite all evidence at the time of it; and he seemed to hate policy and government work yet pursued it at every turn, even though towards the end of his presidency he wanted to seemingly bolt (not even discussing his own sordid personal affairs). I understand that he did what was in his best interest for himself and his party, but it seems counter to what was best for the country.

I'm Canadian, learning about the American Revolution out of my own curiousity, but I just don't understand why Jefferson is as revered as he is in history. It seems like he's a mess of paradoxes and I'd like to understand him (and his impact) better.

I could add to the list France (even thou the vichy government did collaborated with the nazis but it didn't declared war on the allies) and Hungary (who didn't switched side just because of a previous occupation by Germany)

Now and then, we like to host 'Floating Features', periodic threads intended to allow for more open discussion that allows a multitude of possible answers from people of all sorts of backgrounds and levels of expertise.

Our question today comes from /u/Kugelfang52, a flaired user in "Third Reich | Holocaust Historiography | Textbooks". They ask:

"I am currently reading Empire and Underworld and am fascinated by the use of legal definitions and the creation of extra-legal spaces to execute unwanted groups in revolutionary France. As a scholar of the Holocaust, I can certainly see connections. This made me wonder what other locations and times saw similar things occur. Did Athenians or Romans create a extra-legal space to "disappear" enemies? What about Republican or Qin China? Mesoamerica perhaps?

"This is such a fascinating aspect of legal history. Please give me your best account!"

Not sure if this is the right place to ask this but I've been wondering this. In old pictures, stories, movies, etc., I always see men carrying canes even if they don't need them to walk. Why do they do this and why did this practice fall out of favor?

Historically, the monsters a society creates are personifications of what in the culture is widely feared, eg zombies for slavery/loss of control, the Minotaur for earthquakes, vampires for sexuality and later the rich, etc.

So what's the deal with creatures with lethal voices like Banshees and Nightingales? Or the related lethal gaze such as the basilisk or Gorgon (what Medusa is)?

nbsp;

If you know of a more appropriate place to ask, please direct me there.

I know the Model 52 from Mitsubish and Nakajima factories were used on the most carriers during the Leyte Gulf engagement but was the A6M5a, Model 52甲, A6M5 Kō, A6M5 Kou (modification with updated larger drum feed with more ammo) ever used on Imperial Japanese Navy carriers or only used by land based air groups and if it was used on carriers which was it used on ?