I'm assuming they did not use either Roman Numerals nor Arabic numbers

Talking about it in chemistry that its an acid, how in the world would people think about drinking it in water. "oh i got this acid, lets put it into water and drink it" Confuses me

edit: fizzy/soda/carbonated water for our american friends, thanks /u/macoafi

I've heard the term used to describe the advertisements for things like alcohol, cigarettes, and soft drinks where the product isn't really even mentioned it's just associated with a certain lifestyle. Instead of "Try Bayer Aspirin for your headache" it's more like "Here's a bunch of happy people. Coke"

When did this start? It seems like it's far more common now than it was in the early days of television.

I was reading another post, and the question came to mind, what happened to any money or belongings that Jewish people may have kept in banks or safe deposit boxes after WWII (I am talking about those who died during the holocaust.) I would think some rather wealthy people would have been taken to the camps and their bank accounts left sitting. Are there bank accounts out there worth a lot of money due to inflation and interest that no one will ever claim?

Can anyone point me in the right direction of something that will help start me off in learning about ww2.

Would appreciate a basic rundown, a timeline or something simple to spark my interest. Thanks

People always talk about what the Normans contributed to English society, would some of these have developed naturally if the Normans had never invaded? Like for example the census?

Some quick Google searches gave me these numbers:

Total Soviet population- 170m Total Soviet military strength- 34m

Total allied population(US, UK, France)- 227m Total allied military strength- 16.2m

All of these numbers were from 1945.

My question is, how did the Soviet Union have twice as many soldiers as the Allied powers despite having a smaller population? How did the Soviet Union support all of these troops? Could the Allies have supported more troops?

Bit of an unusual query here. I'm working on a novel tracking the adventures of a Polish fighter pilot as he fights the September 1939 campaign, escapes into Romania and gradually makes his way to Constanta to get a boat onwards to join French forces.

I've read lots of accounts from Polish POVs of pilots and others making their way in twos and threes through Romania with papers proclaiming them to be students or priests and wads of cash for bribing guards and officials.

What I'm trying to get hold of is the backdrop to this - I know that the Romanian PM Calinescu was generally sympathetic to the Polish cause and that the two nations had been formal allies for some years, but that he was deposed and murdered by the fascist Iron Guard late in September - about when my guy is trying to get from rural Romania into Bucharest, then out to Constanta. I also read in the Polish accounts that there were widely thought to be many Gestapo agents in Romania dedicated to finding these escapees.

So, I'm trying to get a feel for how dangerous the situation is for them - was the Iron Guard coup really just a change of regime in Bucharest at this stage or would every town and village have uniformed men on the street? Calinescu's government had turned an official blind eye to much escaping, as long as plausible deniability was maintained - how quickly did that change?

I'm envisaging my character arriving in Bucharest, blissfully unaware of what's been brewing, on the day of the assassination of Calinescu and with a suspected Gestapo agent in pursuit, and having to shake or dispose of the agent before he can rat them out to the trucks full of armed paramilitary thugs charging round the streets - then racing to get to Constanta before the new government can get men in place at the port to stop Poles leaving.

Does that sound remotely plausible?

I've seen many occurences of the explanation of "lingua franca" in regions that do not share the same linguistic background, nor the religious or cultural one...

Was the ability to speak more than one language reserved to the social elite/the traders, or was it something more common ?

How common as well were communities of a different language within a settlement ?

I know my question is a bit broad, but I couldn't really come with a better phrasing. The set timeframe is really arbitrary.

Given the general standard of education in England at the time, would the average person be familiar with the tales of Richard II, Henry VI etc? Seeing as this is English history would it just be common knowledge?

Same with Julius Caesar and Antony & Cleopatra, was classical history widely known?

I have seen this claim made and yet I find it hard to believe. It seems my googling skills aren't good enough to find an answer to this.

When Philip the Fair "waged war" on the Knights Templar, he got Clement V to disband the order unconditionally, even the Clement tried to hold fair trials and even resist Philips orders. In the end, Clement V obeyed him. My question is, what made Clement V the puppet of Philip the Fair?

Also why did they demand that Trotsky and other Bolshevik members be released in order to deal with Kornilov? Couldn't a defense be made through the Soviets alone?

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Hi guys, hope this is the right subreddit, but could someone recommend a well written historical account (book) of the 90s as a decade. Not just trashy celeb stuff, but placing cultural trends in the context of the cold war, popular culture and American politics etc.

Would be interested to learn more as it seems the decade is just fully coming into a broader context now that we have 15 years space to look back with.

Thanks!

Years ago, someone told me they heard an audio recording of C.S. Lewis, and were surprised to hear that he had a neutral 'Oxbridge' accent. They'd been expecting him to sound like a stereotypical Irish grandfather or something.

He, as well as Wilde before him, were ethnically (or at least genetically) Irish but of an Anglicized Protestant Elite? Or were they descendants of colonizing Protestant Englishmen? Or would they have picked up 'Oxbridge' accents in the years prior to their respective rises to prominence in the environs of London and Oxford?

Are there any Irish Protestants left who sound more English than Irish?

I've never understood how this played out. The religious and ethnic history of Ireland is more confusing to me than that of the Balkans!

He was commander-in-chief of the German navy from '43 onwards and succeeded Hitler as Head of state of the German Reich. He was sentenced to only 10 years in prison

As the title says I'm very curious as to how someone who essentially was Chancellor for less than a month weilded enough power that he could ban all political parties? I'm assuming the fact that the NSDAP had a majority in the Reichstag?